West Coast University NURS 340 Public Health Nursing: Exam
2 - Questions with Correct Answers
100 questions
1. Social justice in public health means:
A. Distribution based on ability to pay
B. Market-based health care only
C. Fair distribution of resources and burdens so all can achieve health
D. Equal treatment regardless of need always
Correct Answer: C. Fair distribution of resources and burdens so all can achieve health
Rationale: Core PH value.
2. The Minnesota Public Health Intervention Wheel describes:
A. 10 essential services only
B. 3 core functions only
C. Hospital nursing tasks
D. 17 interventions at individual/family, community and systems levels
Correct Answer: D. 17 interventions at individual/family, community and systems levels
Rationale: Population-based practice model.
3. Primary prevention aims to:
A. Detect disease early
B. Limit disability from existing disease
C. Prevent disease or injury before it occurs
D. Rehabilitate patients
Correct Answer: C. Prevent disease or injury before it occurs
Rationale: e.g., immunization, health education.
4. The World Health Organization defines health as:
A. Absence of disease
B. Ability to work
C. A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being, not merely the absence of disease
D. Normal lab values
Correct Answer: C. A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being, not merely the
absence of disease
Rationale: 1948 WHO constitution.
5. Population health outcomes are improved most by:
A. Hospital care alone
B. Combining clinical care with policies addressing social and environmental conditions
C. Genetic testing alone
D. Individual counseling alone
Correct Answer: B. Combining clinical care with policies addressing social and
environmental conditions
Rationale: Health impact pyramid.
,6. The ecological model of health recognizes that health is influenced by:
A. Multiple levels: individual, interpersonal, organizational, community and policy
B. Only individual behavior
C. Only genetics
D. Only health care access
Correct Answer: A. Multiple levels: individual, interpersonal, organizational, community and
policy
Rationale: Socioecological model.
7. A population is defined as:
A. A single family
B. A hospital unit
C. A group of people sharing one or more personal or environmental characteristics
D. One patient
Correct Answer: C. A group of people sharing one or more personal or environmental
characteristics
Rationale: e.g., older adults in a county.
8. Healthy People 2030 organizes SDOH into five domains, which include:
A. Diet, exercise, sleep, stress and genetics
B. Economic stability, education access, health care access, neighborhood/built environment and
social/community context
C. Primary, secondary, tertiary, primordial and quaternary
D. Local, state, federal, global and private
Correct Answer: B. Economic stability, education access, health care access,
neighborhood/built environment and social/community context
Rationale: Five domains.
9. The basic reproduction number R0 is:
A. The number of deaths per case
B. The proportion immune
C. The incubation period
D. The average number of secondary cases from one case in a fully susceptible population
Correct Answer: D. The average number of secondary cases from one case in a fully
susceptible population
Rationale: Measles R0 about 12-18.
10. Bradford Hill criteria help assess:
A. Screening test accuracy
B. Vaccine schedules
C. Budget priorities
D. Whether an association is likely causal
Correct Answer: D. Whether an association is likely causal
Rationale: Strength, consistency, temporality, etc.
11. An epidemic is:
A. Constant presence of disease at a baseline level
B. The occurrence of cases clearly in excess of normal expectancy
C. A worldwide outbreak only
D. A single case of disease
Correct Answer: B. The occurrence of cases clearly in excess of normal expectancy
Rationale: Above expected.
, 12. A relative risk less than 1.0 suggests:
A. The exposure is harmful
B. No association
C. The exposure is protective
D. Bias always
Correct Answer: C. The exposure is protective
Rationale: Lower risk in exposed.
13. The only Bradford Hill criterion considered essential for causation is:
A. Strength
B. Specificity
C. Analogy
D. Temporality (cause precedes effect)
Correct Answer: D. Temporality (cause precedes effect)
Rationale: Must come first.
14. The study design that provides the strongest evidence for causation is:
A. Case report
B. Randomized controlled trial
C. Ecological study
D. Cross-sectional survey
Correct Answer: B. Randomized controlled trial
Rationale: Randomization controls confounding.
15. The crude mortality rate is:
A. Deaths from one cause only
B. Deaths among infants only
C. Total deaths divided by total population in a time period
D. Deaths adjusted for age
Correct Answer: C. Total deaths divided by total population in a time period
Rationale: Not adjusted.
16. Active surveillance involves:
A. Waiting for reports
B. The health department regularly contacting providers to seek out cases
C. No data collection
D. Only death certificates
Correct Answer: B. The health department regularly contacting providers to seek out cases
Rationale: More complete, costly.
17. Passive immunity is acquired by:
A. Receiving preformed antibodies, such as maternal antibodies or immune globulin
B. Vaccination with live vaccine
C. Natural infection
D. Toxoid vaccines
Correct Answer: A. Receiving preformed antibodies, such as maternal antibodies or immune
globulin
Rationale: Short-lived.
2 - Questions with Correct Answers
100 questions
1. Social justice in public health means:
A. Distribution based on ability to pay
B. Market-based health care only
C. Fair distribution of resources and burdens so all can achieve health
D. Equal treatment regardless of need always
Correct Answer: C. Fair distribution of resources and burdens so all can achieve health
Rationale: Core PH value.
2. The Minnesota Public Health Intervention Wheel describes:
A. 10 essential services only
B. 3 core functions only
C. Hospital nursing tasks
D. 17 interventions at individual/family, community and systems levels
Correct Answer: D. 17 interventions at individual/family, community and systems levels
Rationale: Population-based practice model.
3. Primary prevention aims to:
A. Detect disease early
B. Limit disability from existing disease
C. Prevent disease or injury before it occurs
D. Rehabilitate patients
Correct Answer: C. Prevent disease or injury before it occurs
Rationale: e.g., immunization, health education.
4. The World Health Organization defines health as:
A. Absence of disease
B. Ability to work
C. A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being, not merely the absence of disease
D. Normal lab values
Correct Answer: C. A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being, not merely the
absence of disease
Rationale: 1948 WHO constitution.
5. Population health outcomes are improved most by:
A. Hospital care alone
B. Combining clinical care with policies addressing social and environmental conditions
C. Genetic testing alone
D. Individual counseling alone
Correct Answer: B. Combining clinical care with policies addressing social and
environmental conditions
Rationale: Health impact pyramid.
,6. The ecological model of health recognizes that health is influenced by:
A. Multiple levels: individual, interpersonal, organizational, community and policy
B. Only individual behavior
C. Only genetics
D. Only health care access
Correct Answer: A. Multiple levels: individual, interpersonal, organizational, community and
policy
Rationale: Socioecological model.
7. A population is defined as:
A. A single family
B. A hospital unit
C. A group of people sharing one or more personal or environmental characteristics
D. One patient
Correct Answer: C. A group of people sharing one or more personal or environmental
characteristics
Rationale: e.g., older adults in a county.
8. Healthy People 2030 organizes SDOH into five domains, which include:
A. Diet, exercise, sleep, stress and genetics
B. Economic stability, education access, health care access, neighborhood/built environment and
social/community context
C. Primary, secondary, tertiary, primordial and quaternary
D. Local, state, federal, global and private
Correct Answer: B. Economic stability, education access, health care access,
neighborhood/built environment and social/community context
Rationale: Five domains.
9. The basic reproduction number R0 is:
A. The number of deaths per case
B. The proportion immune
C. The incubation period
D. The average number of secondary cases from one case in a fully susceptible population
Correct Answer: D. The average number of secondary cases from one case in a fully
susceptible population
Rationale: Measles R0 about 12-18.
10. Bradford Hill criteria help assess:
A. Screening test accuracy
B. Vaccine schedules
C. Budget priorities
D. Whether an association is likely causal
Correct Answer: D. Whether an association is likely causal
Rationale: Strength, consistency, temporality, etc.
11. An epidemic is:
A. Constant presence of disease at a baseline level
B. The occurrence of cases clearly in excess of normal expectancy
C. A worldwide outbreak only
D. A single case of disease
Correct Answer: B. The occurrence of cases clearly in excess of normal expectancy
Rationale: Above expected.
, 12. A relative risk less than 1.0 suggests:
A. The exposure is harmful
B. No association
C. The exposure is protective
D. Bias always
Correct Answer: C. The exposure is protective
Rationale: Lower risk in exposed.
13. The only Bradford Hill criterion considered essential for causation is:
A. Strength
B. Specificity
C. Analogy
D. Temporality (cause precedes effect)
Correct Answer: D. Temporality (cause precedes effect)
Rationale: Must come first.
14. The study design that provides the strongest evidence for causation is:
A. Case report
B. Randomized controlled trial
C. Ecological study
D. Cross-sectional survey
Correct Answer: B. Randomized controlled trial
Rationale: Randomization controls confounding.
15. The crude mortality rate is:
A. Deaths from one cause only
B. Deaths among infants only
C. Total deaths divided by total population in a time period
D. Deaths adjusted for age
Correct Answer: C. Total deaths divided by total population in a time period
Rationale: Not adjusted.
16. Active surveillance involves:
A. Waiting for reports
B. The health department regularly contacting providers to seek out cases
C. No data collection
D. Only death certificates
Correct Answer: B. The health department regularly contacting providers to seek out cases
Rationale: More complete, costly.
17. Passive immunity is acquired by:
A. Receiving preformed antibodies, such as maternal antibodies or immune globulin
B. Vaccination with live vaccine
C. Natural infection
D. Toxoid vaccines
Correct Answer: A. Receiving preformed antibodies, such as maternal antibodies or immune
globulin
Rationale: Short-lived.
