UTA NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology for Nurse
Practitioners: Practice Test 2 (Units 8-13) - Questions with
Correct Answers
100 questions
1. Oral semaglutide should be taken:
A. With a large meal
B. At bedtime with milk
C. On an empty stomach with no more than 4 oz water, 30 minutes before food or other meds
D. With antacids
Correct Answer: C. On an empty stomach with no more than 4 oz water, 30 minutes before
food or other meds
Rationale: Absorption is limited.
2. The 15-15 rule for conscious hypoglycemia means:
A. Give 15 units insulin and wait 15 minutes
B. Give glucagon 15 mg
C. Fast for 15 hours
D. Give 15 g fast carbohydrate, recheck in 15 minutes
Correct Answer: D. Give 15 g fast carbohydrate, recheck in 15 minutes
Rationale: Repeat if still under 70 mg/dL.
3. Hypoglycemia in a patient on acarbose plus a sulfonylurea should be treated with:
A. Table sugar
B. Orange juice with sugar added
C. Regular soda
D. Glucose (dextrose) tablets rather than sucrose
Correct Answer: D. Glucose (dextrose) tablets rather than sucrose
Rationale: Acarbose blocks sucrose breakdown.
4. GLP-1 receptor agonists with proven cardiovascular benefit include:
A. Exenatide immediate-release only
B. Liraglutide, semaglutide and dulaglutide
C. Sitagliptin
D. Acarbose
Correct Answer: B. Liraglutide, semaglutide and dulaglutide
Rationale: Preferred with ASCVD.
5. Which DPP-4 inhibitor does not require renal dose adjustment?
A. Sitagliptin
B. Saxagliptin
C. Linagliptin
D. Alogliptin
Correct Answer: C. Linagliptin
Rationale: Primarily biliary excretion.
,6. Basal insulin is usually titrated based on:
A. Bedtime glucose only
B. Postprandial glucose only
C. Fasting blood glucose
D. A1C checked weekly
Correct Answer: C. Fasting blood glucose
Rationale: Adjust every 2-3 days to target fasting value.
7. Thiazolidinediones such as pioglitazone work by:
A. Activating PPAR-gamma to improve insulin sensitivity
B. Stimulating insulin release
C. Blocking intestinal glucose absorption
D. Inhibiting DPP-4
Correct Answer: A. Activating PPAR-gamma to improve insulin sensitivity
Rationale: Insulin sensitizer.
8. Which sulfonylurea is best avoided in older adults because of prolonged hypoglycemia?
A. Glipizide
B. Glyburide
C. Glimepiride at low dose
D. Tolbutamide in a short course
Correct Answer: B. Glyburide
Rationale: Long-acting active metabolites; Beers Criteria.
9. An HbA1c result may be falsely low in patients with:
A. Iron deficiency anemia untreated
B. Recent blood loss, hemolysis or recent transfusion
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hyperlipidemia
Correct Answer: B. Recent blood loss, hemolysis or recent transfusion
Rationale: Shortened red cell lifespan; consider fructosamine or CGM.
10. Continuous glucose monitoring is recommended for:
A. Patients with prediabetes only
B. Patients on diet control alone only
C. Patients using multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps
D. No patients
Correct Answer: C. Patients using multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps
Rationale: ADA Standards of Care.
11. The most common adverse effects of GLP-1 receptor agonists are:
A. Hypoglycemia as monotherapy
B. Weight gain
C. Edema
D. Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea
Correct Answer: D. Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea
Rationale: Titrate slowly.
, 12. A common adverse effect of SGLT2 inhibitors is:
A. Genital mycotic infections
B. Hypoglycemia as monotherapy
C. Weight gain
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A. Genital mycotic infections
Rationale: Glucosuria promotes yeast growth; counsel hygiene.
13. Statin therapy is recommended for adults with diabetes aged:
A. 40-75 years, at least moderate intensity
B. Only over 80
C. Only with prior MI
D. Under 20 only
Correct Answer: A. 40-75 years, at least moderate intensity
Rationale: Primary prevention.
14. Medications that raise blood glucose include:
A. Metformin and acarbose
B. ACE inhibitors only
C. Glucocorticoids, thiazides and atypical antipsychotics
D. Aspirin at low dose
Correct Answer: C. Glucocorticoids, thiazides and atypical antipsychotics
Rationale: Consider when control worsens.
15. SGLT2 inhibitors lower glucose by:
A. Stimulating insulin secretion
B. Blocking glucose reabsorption in the proximal renal tubule
C. Slowing gastric emptying
D. Inhibiting hepatic gluconeogenesis directly
Correct Answer: B. Blocking glucose reabsorption in the proximal renal tubule
Rationale: Glucosuria.
16. SGLT2 inhibitors are preferred in type 2 diabetes with:
A. Recurrent urinary tract infections
B. Type 1 diabetes
C. eGFR below 15 on dialysis
D. Heart failure or chronic kidney disease
Correct Answer: D. Heart failure or chronic kidney disease
Rationale: Cardiorenal benefit independent of A1C.
17. SGLT2 inhibitors should usually be held:
A. Only on the day of a dental cleaning
B. During any mild cold
C. Never
D. About 3 days before scheduled surgery
Correct Answer: D. About 3 days before scheduled surgery
Rationale: Reduces perioperative ketoacidosis risk.
Practitioners: Practice Test 2 (Units 8-13) - Questions with
Correct Answers
100 questions
1. Oral semaglutide should be taken:
A. With a large meal
B. At bedtime with milk
C. On an empty stomach with no more than 4 oz water, 30 minutes before food or other meds
D. With antacids
Correct Answer: C. On an empty stomach with no more than 4 oz water, 30 minutes before
food or other meds
Rationale: Absorption is limited.
2. The 15-15 rule for conscious hypoglycemia means:
A. Give 15 units insulin and wait 15 minutes
B. Give glucagon 15 mg
C. Fast for 15 hours
D. Give 15 g fast carbohydrate, recheck in 15 minutes
Correct Answer: D. Give 15 g fast carbohydrate, recheck in 15 minutes
Rationale: Repeat if still under 70 mg/dL.
3. Hypoglycemia in a patient on acarbose plus a sulfonylurea should be treated with:
A. Table sugar
B. Orange juice with sugar added
C. Regular soda
D. Glucose (dextrose) tablets rather than sucrose
Correct Answer: D. Glucose (dextrose) tablets rather than sucrose
Rationale: Acarbose blocks sucrose breakdown.
4. GLP-1 receptor agonists with proven cardiovascular benefit include:
A. Exenatide immediate-release only
B. Liraglutide, semaglutide and dulaglutide
C. Sitagliptin
D. Acarbose
Correct Answer: B. Liraglutide, semaglutide and dulaglutide
Rationale: Preferred with ASCVD.
5. Which DPP-4 inhibitor does not require renal dose adjustment?
A. Sitagliptin
B. Saxagliptin
C. Linagliptin
D. Alogliptin
Correct Answer: C. Linagliptin
Rationale: Primarily biliary excretion.
,6. Basal insulin is usually titrated based on:
A. Bedtime glucose only
B. Postprandial glucose only
C. Fasting blood glucose
D. A1C checked weekly
Correct Answer: C. Fasting blood glucose
Rationale: Adjust every 2-3 days to target fasting value.
7. Thiazolidinediones such as pioglitazone work by:
A. Activating PPAR-gamma to improve insulin sensitivity
B. Stimulating insulin release
C. Blocking intestinal glucose absorption
D. Inhibiting DPP-4
Correct Answer: A. Activating PPAR-gamma to improve insulin sensitivity
Rationale: Insulin sensitizer.
8. Which sulfonylurea is best avoided in older adults because of prolonged hypoglycemia?
A. Glipizide
B. Glyburide
C. Glimepiride at low dose
D. Tolbutamide in a short course
Correct Answer: B. Glyburide
Rationale: Long-acting active metabolites; Beers Criteria.
9. An HbA1c result may be falsely low in patients with:
A. Iron deficiency anemia untreated
B. Recent blood loss, hemolysis or recent transfusion
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hyperlipidemia
Correct Answer: B. Recent blood loss, hemolysis or recent transfusion
Rationale: Shortened red cell lifespan; consider fructosamine or CGM.
10. Continuous glucose monitoring is recommended for:
A. Patients with prediabetes only
B. Patients on diet control alone only
C. Patients using multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps
D. No patients
Correct Answer: C. Patients using multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps
Rationale: ADA Standards of Care.
11. The most common adverse effects of GLP-1 receptor agonists are:
A. Hypoglycemia as monotherapy
B. Weight gain
C. Edema
D. Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea
Correct Answer: D. Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea
Rationale: Titrate slowly.
, 12. A common adverse effect of SGLT2 inhibitors is:
A. Genital mycotic infections
B. Hypoglycemia as monotherapy
C. Weight gain
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A. Genital mycotic infections
Rationale: Glucosuria promotes yeast growth; counsel hygiene.
13. Statin therapy is recommended for adults with diabetes aged:
A. 40-75 years, at least moderate intensity
B. Only over 80
C. Only with prior MI
D. Under 20 only
Correct Answer: A. 40-75 years, at least moderate intensity
Rationale: Primary prevention.
14. Medications that raise blood glucose include:
A. Metformin and acarbose
B. ACE inhibitors only
C. Glucocorticoids, thiazides and atypical antipsychotics
D. Aspirin at low dose
Correct Answer: C. Glucocorticoids, thiazides and atypical antipsychotics
Rationale: Consider when control worsens.
15. SGLT2 inhibitors lower glucose by:
A. Stimulating insulin secretion
B. Blocking glucose reabsorption in the proximal renal tubule
C. Slowing gastric emptying
D. Inhibiting hepatic gluconeogenesis directly
Correct Answer: B. Blocking glucose reabsorption in the proximal renal tubule
Rationale: Glucosuria.
16. SGLT2 inhibitors are preferred in type 2 diabetes with:
A. Recurrent urinary tract infections
B. Type 1 diabetes
C. eGFR below 15 on dialysis
D. Heart failure or chronic kidney disease
Correct Answer: D. Heart failure or chronic kidney disease
Rationale: Cardiorenal benefit independent of A1C.
17. SGLT2 inhibitors should usually be held:
A. Only on the day of a dental cleaning
B. During any mild cold
C. Never
D. About 3 days before scheduled surgery
Correct Answer: D. About 3 days before scheduled surgery
Rationale: Reduces perioperative ketoacidosis risk.
