ABOG Obstetrics & Gynaecology Qualifying Exam 2026:
Comprehensive Board Certification Practice Test — Obstetrics,
Gynaecology, Reproductive Endocrinology, Gynaecologic Oncology,
Maternal-fatal Medicine & Clinical Management — Multiple-Choice
Questions with Answers & Detailed Rationales
Practice Examination — 190 Multiple Choice Questions
SECTION A: OBSTETRICS (Q1–Q64)
Question 1
A 28-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks gestation presents with new-onset severe headache, visual
disturbances, and blood pressure 168/112 mmHg. Laboratory studies reveal platelets
85,000/µL, AST 120 U/L, and creatinine 1.3 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most
appropriate immediate management?
A. Oral labetalol and outpatient follow-up in 48 hours
B. Intravenous magnesium sulfate and immediate delivery
C. Betamethasone administration and expectant management for 48 hours
D. Intravenous hydralazine alone and reassessment in 4 hours
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This patient has preeclampsia with severe features at ≥34 weeks; magnesium
sulfate prevents seizures and delivery is indicated. Immediate delivery is the definitive
treatment at this gestational age.
Question 2
,A 32-year-old G1P0 at 10 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and passage of
tissue. Ultrasound confirms retained products of conception. Which of the following is the
most appropriate management?
A. Expectant management for 2 weeks
B. Immediate dilation and curettage
C. Misoprostol 800 µg vaginally
D. Methotrexate 50 mg/m² IM
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Medical management with misoprostol is effective for retained products in a
hemodynamically stable patient, avoiding surgical risks while achieving complete evacuation.
Question 3
A 25-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks presents in active labor. Fetal heart tracing shows recurrent
late decelerations with minimal variability. Which of the following is the most appropriate
initial intervention?
A. Amnioinfusion
B. Maternal repositioning and IV fluid bolus
C. Immediate cesarean delivery
D. Terbutaline administration
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Intrauterine resuscitation begins with maternal repositioning and fluid bolus to
improve uteroplacental perfusion before considering operative delivery.
,Question 4
A 30-year-old G3P2 at 34 weeks presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding.
Ultrasound shows the placenta covering the internal cervical os. Which of the following is
contraindicated?
A. Continuous fetal monitoring
B. Digital cervical examination
C. Maternal stabilization with IV fluids
D. Type and screen with crossmatch
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Digital examination is contraindicated in placenta previa as it may provoke
catastrophic hemorrhage by disrupting the placental attachment over the cervix.
Question 5
A 35-year-old G2P1 at 41 weeks presents for post-term evaluation. Which of the following is
the most appropriate management?
A. Expectant management until 42 weeks
B. Induction of labor
C. Weekly biophysical profile
D. Membrane sweeping alone
Correct Answer: B
, Explanation: At 41 weeks, induction is recommended due to increased stillbirth risk;
expectant management beyond 41 weeks increases perinatal mortality without benefit.
Question 6
A 22-year-old G1P0 at 28 weeks presents with preterm contractions and cervical dilation of 3
cm. Which of the following interventions has the strongest evidence for fetal
neuroprotection?
A. Betamethasone
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Nifedipine
D. Indomethacin
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Magnesium sulfate administered before preterm birth at <32 weeks reduces
the risk of cerebral palsy; betamethasone accelerates lung maturity but does not provide
neuroprotection.
Question 7
A 40-year-old G4P3 at 38 weeks presents with spontaneous rupture of membranes. Group B
Streptococcus status is unknown. Which of the following is the most appropriate
management?
A. Immediate induction without antibiotics
B. Penicillin prophylaxis and induction
C. Cesarean delivery
D. Expectant management for 24 hours
Comprehensive Board Certification Practice Test — Obstetrics,
Gynaecology, Reproductive Endocrinology, Gynaecologic Oncology,
Maternal-fatal Medicine & Clinical Management — Multiple-Choice
Questions with Answers & Detailed Rationales
Practice Examination — 190 Multiple Choice Questions
SECTION A: OBSTETRICS (Q1–Q64)
Question 1
A 28-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks gestation presents with new-onset severe headache, visual
disturbances, and blood pressure 168/112 mmHg. Laboratory studies reveal platelets
85,000/µL, AST 120 U/L, and creatinine 1.3 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most
appropriate immediate management?
A. Oral labetalol and outpatient follow-up in 48 hours
B. Intravenous magnesium sulfate and immediate delivery
C. Betamethasone administration and expectant management for 48 hours
D. Intravenous hydralazine alone and reassessment in 4 hours
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This patient has preeclampsia with severe features at ≥34 weeks; magnesium
sulfate prevents seizures and delivery is indicated. Immediate delivery is the definitive
treatment at this gestational age.
Question 2
,A 32-year-old G1P0 at 10 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and passage of
tissue. Ultrasound confirms retained products of conception. Which of the following is the
most appropriate management?
A. Expectant management for 2 weeks
B. Immediate dilation and curettage
C. Misoprostol 800 µg vaginally
D. Methotrexate 50 mg/m² IM
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Medical management with misoprostol is effective for retained products in a
hemodynamically stable patient, avoiding surgical risks while achieving complete evacuation.
Question 3
A 25-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks presents in active labor. Fetal heart tracing shows recurrent
late decelerations with minimal variability. Which of the following is the most appropriate
initial intervention?
A. Amnioinfusion
B. Maternal repositioning and IV fluid bolus
C. Immediate cesarean delivery
D. Terbutaline administration
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Intrauterine resuscitation begins with maternal repositioning and fluid bolus to
improve uteroplacental perfusion before considering operative delivery.
,Question 4
A 30-year-old G3P2 at 34 weeks presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding.
Ultrasound shows the placenta covering the internal cervical os. Which of the following is
contraindicated?
A. Continuous fetal monitoring
B. Digital cervical examination
C. Maternal stabilization with IV fluids
D. Type and screen with crossmatch
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Digital examination is contraindicated in placenta previa as it may provoke
catastrophic hemorrhage by disrupting the placental attachment over the cervix.
Question 5
A 35-year-old G2P1 at 41 weeks presents for post-term evaluation. Which of the following is
the most appropriate management?
A. Expectant management until 42 weeks
B. Induction of labor
C. Weekly biophysical profile
D. Membrane sweeping alone
Correct Answer: B
, Explanation: At 41 weeks, induction is recommended due to increased stillbirth risk;
expectant management beyond 41 weeks increases perinatal mortality without benefit.
Question 6
A 22-year-old G1P0 at 28 weeks presents with preterm contractions and cervical dilation of 3
cm. Which of the following interventions has the strongest evidence for fetal
neuroprotection?
A. Betamethasone
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Nifedipine
D. Indomethacin
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Magnesium sulfate administered before preterm birth at <32 weeks reduces
the risk of cerebral palsy; betamethasone accelerates lung maturity but does not provide
neuroprotection.
Question 7
A 40-year-old G4P3 at 38 weeks presents with spontaneous rupture of membranes. Group B
Streptococcus status is unknown. Which of the following is the most appropriate
management?
A. Immediate induction without antibiotics
B. Penicillin prophylaxis and induction
C. Cesarean delivery
D. Expectant management for 24 hours
