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NSG 3500 Final Exam | NSG 3500 Maternal Health | Questions and Answers with Rationales 2026/2027 Update

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Voorbeeld 4 van de 84 pagina's

NSG 3500 Final Exam | NSG 3500 Maternal Health | Questions and Answers with Rationales 2026/2027 Update

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

NSG 3500 Final Exam | NSG 3500 Maternal
Health | Questions and Answers with
Rationales 2026/2027 Update

QUESTION 1 A nurse is caring for a client at 38 weeks gestation who presents in
active labor. The client asks what initiates the onset of true labor contractions.
Which hormonal mechanism is considered a primary contributor to the onset of
labor?
A. A sharp decline in maternal progesterone levels coupled with rising estrogen,
oxytocin, and prostaglandin levels
B. A massive surge in human placental lactogen production by the placenta
C. Complete cessation of fetal cortisol secretion
D. A sudden drop in maternal thyroid hormone levels
CORRECT ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: The onset of labor is triggered by a complex interplay of hormonal
shifts, notably a decrease in progesterone's relaxant effect on the myometrium,
alongside increasing estrogen stimulation, rising oxytocin receptor sensitivity, and
local prostaglandin synthesis that stimulate uterine contractions.
QUESTION 2 A nurse is assessing a laboring client in the triage unit. Which clinical
finding distinguishes true labor contractions from false labor (Braxton Hicks)
contractions?
A. Contractions that remain irregular and stop entirely with walking or hydration
B. Contractions that progressively increase in frequency, duration, and intensity,
accompanied by progressive cervical dilation and effacement
C. Discomfort felt exclusively in the lower abdomen and groin without radiating
pain
D. Complete absence of cervical changes over a 4-hour monitoring period

,CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: True labor contractions become regular, increase in frequency and
intensity over time, radiate from the back to the abdomen, and result in
progressive effacement and dilation of the cervix, whereas Braxton Hicks
contractions are irregular and do not cause cervical change.
QUESTION 3 A nurse is evaluating the four stages of labor. During which stage
does the transition phase occur, characterized by rapid cervical dilation from 8 to
10 centimeters and strong maternal urges to push?
A. First stage of labor
B. Second stage of labor
C. Third stage of labor
D. Fourth stage of labor
CORRECT ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: The first stage of labor is divided into latent, active, and transition
phases. The transition phase spans from 8 to 10 centimeters of dilation and
represents the most intense portion of the first stage.
QUESTION 4 A nurse is caring for a client in the second stage of labor. What event
marks the beginning of the second stage of labor?
A. Onset of regular uterine contractions
B. Complete cervical dilation (10 centimeters) and 100 percent effacement
C. Delivery of the placenta
D. Rupture of the amniotic membranes
CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: The second stage of labor begins when the cervix reaches complete
dilation (10 centimeters) and effacement, and it concludes with the birth of the
newborn.
QUESTION 5 What physiological event marks the completion of the third stage of
labor?

,A. Complete dilation of the cervix
B. Expulsion of the placenta and fetal membranes
C. Repair of an episiotomy or laceration
D. Stabilization of maternal vital signs in recovery
CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: The third stage of labor spans from the birth of the newborn until the
complete separation and expulsion of the placenta and fetal membranes.
QUESTION 6 A nurse is caring for a postpartum client in the fourth stage of labor.
How long does the fourth stage of labor typically last following delivery?
A. The first 1 to 2 hours immediately following placental delivery
B. The first 24 hours postpartum
C. The first 6 weeks following birth
D. The first 10 minutes post-delivery
CORRECT ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: The fourth stage of labor is the immediate postpartum recovery
period lasting approximately 1 to 2 hours after the delivery of the placenta, during
which vital signs, lochia, and uterine tone are closely monitored.
QUESTION 7 A nurse is assisting a client through the cardinal movements of labor
for a vertex presentation. What is the correct sequence of these cardinal
movements?
A. Engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation
(restitution), and expulsion
B. Expulsion, descent, flexion, internal rotation, engagement, and extension
C. Internal rotation, engagement, extension, descent, flexion, and expulsion
D. Flexion, extension, engagement, descent, internal rotation, and expulsion
CORRECT ANSWER: A

, RATIONALE: The cardinal movements of labor describe how the fetus navigates
the pelvis: engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external
rotation (restitution), and finally expulsion.
QUESTION 8 A nurse is assessing a newborn using the Apgar scoring system at 1
minute of life. The infant has a heart rate of 140 beats per minute, cries
vigorously when stimulated, exhibits well-flexed extremities, moves actively, is
completely pink all over, and breathes with a strong, regular respiratory effort.
What is the correct Apgar score?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Heart rate > 100 = 2. Vigorous cry = 2. Flexion/active movement = 2.
Completely pink body (no acrocyanosis) = 2. Strong respiratory effort = 2. Total
score is 10.
QUESTION 9 A nurse is evaluating a fetal heart rate tracing and notes moderate
baseline variability, a baseline rate of 140 beats per minute, presence of
accelerations, and absence of late or variable decelerations. Under NICHD
guidelines, how is this tracing classified?
A. Category I (Normal/Reassuring)
B. Category II (Indeterminate)
C. Category III (Abnormal/Non-reassuring)
D. Category IV (Critical)
CORRECT ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Category I fetal heart rate tracings are normal, reassuring baselines
that predict normal fetal acid-base status, characterized by a baseline of 110 to
160 beats per minute, moderate variability, and no late or variable decelerations.

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