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A patient is being tested for HIV using a third-generation enzyme
immunoassay (EIA). Which specimen can be used for this type of
testing?
A. Urine only
B. Saliva, urine, or serum
C. Cerebrospinal fluid only
D. Synovial fluid
Answer: B
Rationale: Third-generation HIV immunoassays detect antibodies to
HIV and may be performed using serum, saliva, or urine depending on
the specific test. Serum testing is generally the most established
laboratory approach. Antibody testing may require several weeks after
exposure before antibodies become reliably detectable.
Which feature makes the fourth-generation HIV immunoassay
particularly useful for early detection?
A. It detects only HIV antibodies
B. It requires a CD4 count below 200 cells/mm³
,C. It detects both HIV antibodies and p24 antigen
D. It detects HIV only after AIDS develops
Answer: C
Rationale: Fourth-generation HIV assays detect both HIV antibodies
and the p24 antigen. Because p24 antigen becomes detectable before
antibodies, fourth-generation testing can identify HIV infection earlier
than antibody-only assays.
What is the primary role of mast cells in acute inflammation?
A. They release inflammatory mediators after activation
B. They produce red blood cells
C. They destroy antibodies in circulation
D. They prevent leukocytes from entering tissues
Answer: A
Rationale: Mast cells are connective-tissue cells located near blood
vessels. When activated, they degranulate and release mediators such
as histamine and other inflammatory substances, initiating and
amplifying the inflammatory response.
Which action is most directly associated with histamine release during
inflammation?
A. Decreased blood flow and vasoconstriction
B. Decreased vascular permeability
,C. Inhibition of leukocyte migration
D. Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Answer: D
Rationale: Histamine causes vasodilation and increases vascular
permeability. These effects increase blood flow and allow plasma
proteins and fluid to enter injured tissues, producing redness and
swelling.
What is the primary function of cytokines during an immune
response?
A. Transport oxygen throughout the body
B. Regulate communication and activity among immune and other
cells
C. Form the fibrin mesh during coagulation
D. Destroy all circulating antibodies
Answer: B
Rationale: Cytokines are soluble signaling molecules that regulate
innate and adaptive immune responses. Depending on the cytokine,
they may promote or suppress inflammation and influence the
behavior of nearby or distant cells.
Which inflammatory mediators are produced through the arachidonic
acid pathway and are associated with vasodilation, pain, and fever?
, A. Prostaglandins
B. Antibodies
C. Complement proteins
D. Immunoglobulins
Answer: A
Rationale: Prostaglandins are lipid mediators generated from
arachidonic acid. They contribute to vasodilation, pain sensitization,
and fever and participate in several other physiologic processes.
Which statement best describes leukotrienes?
A. They inhibit leukocyte migration
B. They prevent mast-cell activation
C. They participate in inflammation and attract leukocytes
D. They form antibodies against bacteria
Answer: C
Rationale: Leukotrienes are inflammatory lipid mediators derived
from arachidonic acid. They contribute to inflammation and can
promote leukocyte recruitment. Certain leukotrienes also contribute to
bronchoconstriction.
What is the primary function of a chemotactic factor?
A. Attract leukocytes toward the site of inflammation
B. Prevent blood clot formation