NURS 1150 NURSE PHARMACOLOGY III
- EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
2026/2027 VERIFIED
1. A 75-year-old patient with low serum albumin levels is prescribed a highly protein-bound
medication. Which pharmacological effect should the nurse expect?
A. Decreased drug metabolism in the liver
B. Reduced therapeutic effect of the drug
C. Increased risk of drug toxicity due to more free drug
D. Faster excretion of the drug by the kidneys
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Low albumin means fewer binding sites, leading to an increase
in free (active) drug in the bloodstream, which significantly increases the risk of toxicity.
2. A patient is receiving Digoxin for heart failure. Which clinical finding should the nurse
prioritize as a sign of early Digoxin toxicity?
A. Anorexia and nausea
B. Hypertension
C. Increased urinary output
D. Sudden weight gain
,Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Early signs of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal
disturbances such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and visual changes (yellow-green halos).
3. The nurse is preparing to administer Epinephrine to a patient in anaphylactic shock. What
is the primary mechanism of action for this drug?
A. Selective blockade of Beta-2 receptors
B. Inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system
C. Stimulation of Alpha-1, Beta-1, and Beta-2 receptors
D. Activation of muscarinic receptors
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Epinephrine is a non-selective adrenergic agonist that
stimulates alpha-1 (vasoconstriction), beta-1 (increased heart rate), and beta-2
(bronchodilation) receptors.
4. Which assessment finding is a contraindication for the administration of a non-selective
Beta-blocker like Propranolol?
A. Tachycardia
B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
C. History of asthma or bronchospasm
D. History of glaucoma
, Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Non-selective beta-blockers block Beta-2 receptors in the lungs,
which can cause bronchoconstriction; therefore, they are contraindicated in patients with
asthma or COPD.
5. A patient is prescribed Atropine to treat symptomatic bradycardia. Which side effect
should the nurse instruct the patient to expect?
A. Diarrhea
B. Excessive salivation
C. Pupillary constriction
D. Dry mouth and blurred vision
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Atropine is an anticholinergic drug. Common side effects include
the ‘can’t see, can’t pee, can’t spit, can’t poop’ symptoms: dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary
retention, and constipation.
6. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient receiving an IV infusion of
Vancomycin who develops ‘Red Man Syndrome’?
A. Stop the infusion immediately and notify the provider
B. Slow the rate of the infusion
C. Administer Epinephrine subcutaneously
- EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
2026/2027 VERIFIED
1. A 75-year-old patient with low serum albumin levels is prescribed a highly protein-bound
medication. Which pharmacological effect should the nurse expect?
A. Decreased drug metabolism in the liver
B. Reduced therapeutic effect of the drug
C. Increased risk of drug toxicity due to more free drug
D. Faster excretion of the drug by the kidneys
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Low albumin means fewer binding sites, leading to an increase
in free (active) drug in the bloodstream, which significantly increases the risk of toxicity.
2. A patient is receiving Digoxin for heart failure. Which clinical finding should the nurse
prioritize as a sign of early Digoxin toxicity?
A. Anorexia and nausea
B. Hypertension
C. Increased urinary output
D. Sudden weight gain
,Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Early signs of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal
disturbances such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and visual changes (yellow-green halos).
3. The nurse is preparing to administer Epinephrine to a patient in anaphylactic shock. What
is the primary mechanism of action for this drug?
A. Selective blockade of Beta-2 receptors
B. Inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system
C. Stimulation of Alpha-1, Beta-1, and Beta-2 receptors
D. Activation of muscarinic receptors
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Epinephrine is a non-selective adrenergic agonist that
stimulates alpha-1 (vasoconstriction), beta-1 (increased heart rate), and beta-2
(bronchodilation) receptors.
4. Which assessment finding is a contraindication for the administration of a non-selective
Beta-blocker like Propranolol?
A. Tachycardia
B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
C. History of asthma or bronchospasm
D. History of glaucoma
, Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Non-selective beta-blockers block Beta-2 receptors in the lungs,
which can cause bronchoconstriction; therefore, they are contraindicated in patients with
asthma or COPD.
5. A patient is prescribed Atropine to treat symptomatic bradycardia. Which side effect
should the nurse instruct the patient to expect?
A. Diarrhea
B. Excessive salivation
C. Pupillary constriction
D. Dry mouth and blurred vision
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Atropine is an anticholinergic drug. Common side effects include
the ‘can’t see, can’t pee, can’t spit, can’t poop’ symptoms: dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary
retention, and constipation.
6. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient receiving an IV infusion of
Vancomycin who develops ‘Red Man Syndrome’?
A. Stop the infusion immediately and notify the provider
B. Slow the rate of the infusion
C. Administer Epinephrine subcutaneously
