NURS 1150 Final Exam Actual Exam V3 | NURS 1150 Nurse
Pharmacology I (NURS1150 Final Exam) | Northwest College (NWC)
1. Which pharmacokinetic process is primarily affected by the first-pass effect when a drug is
administered orally?
A. Excretion
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Absorption
Answer: C
Rationale: The first-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug by the liver before it
reaches systemic circulation. This process significantly reduces the bioavailability of
certain oral medications. Understanding this concept helps nurses determine why oral
doses are often much higher than intravenous doses for the same medication.
2. A patient is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which lab value should the nurse
monitor to assess the therapeutic effect?
A. PTT
B. Platelet count
C. Hemoglobin
D. INR
Answer: D
Rationale: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the standardized measurement
used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Maintaining an INR within the target
range is essential to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding. Nurses must educate
patients on the importance of consistent vitamin K intake and regular lab checks.
3. Which medication is considered the antidote for an overdose of heparin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Glucagon
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Acetylcysteine
Answer: C
,Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antagonist used to neutralize the anticoagulant
effects of heparin. It works by forming a stable salt complex with the heparin molecule,
rendering it inactive. Prompt administration is critical in the event of life-threatening
hemorrhage during heparin therapy.
4. A patient with heart failure is taking digoxin. Which electrolyte imbalance increases the
risk of digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: Low potassium levels increase the sensitivity of the heart to digoxin, leading to
toxic manifestations such as arrhythmias. Digoxin and potassium compete for the same
binding sites on the sodium-potassium ATPase pump. Nurses should monitor serum
potassium levels closely, especially if the patient is also taking loop diuretics.
5. What is the most common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril?
A. Dry, non-productive cough
B. Hypokalemia
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypertension
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, which can lead to a
persistent dry cough in many patients. This side effect is often the reason for switching
patients to Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs). If the cough becomes intolerable,
clinical reasoning dictates a transition to a different drug class to ensure adherence.
6. Which education is most important for a patient starting a new prescription for a statin
drug?
A. Report any unexplained muscle pain or weakness
B. Take the medication with grapefruit juice
C. Expect the urine to turn bright orange
D. Stop the drug immediately if a headache occurs
Answer: A
, Rationale: Muscle pain or weakness can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a rare but serious
side effect of statin therapy. This condition involves the breakdown of muscle tissue which
can lead to acute renal failure. Timely reporting allows for laboratory assessment of
creatine kinase levels and prevention of permanent organ damage.
7. A nurse is preparing to administer albuterol via a metered-dose inhaler. What should the
nurse explain as the primary action of this drug?
A. Bronchodilation
B. Thinning respiratory secretions
C. Reducing airway inflammation
D. Suppressing the cough reflex
Answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that works by relaxing the smooth
muscles of the bronchi. This rapid bronchodilation provides quick relief during acute
asthma attacks or bronchospasm. Nurses must teach patients that this is a rescue inhaler
and should always be available for emergencies.
8. A patient is prescribed furosemide 40mg IV. What should the nurse assess before
administration?
A. Pupillary reaction and reflexes
B. Oxygen saturation and glucose
C. Heart rate and white blood cell count
D. Blood pressure and potassium level
Answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that can cause significant drops in blood
pressure and serum potassium. Rapid administration can also lead to ototoxicity, so the
rate should be monitored. Pre-administration assessment ensures the patient can safely
tolerate the volume loss and electrolyte shift.
9. Which type of insulin should the nurse expect to have the fastest onset of action?
A. Insulin Glargine
B. Insulin NPH
C. Regular Insulin
D. Insulin Lispro
Answer: D
Pharmacology I (NURS1150 Final Exam) | Northwest College (NWC)
1. Which pharmacokinetic process is primarily affected by the first-pass effect when a drug is
administered orally?
A. Excretion
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Absorption
Answer: C
Rationale: The first-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug by the liver before it
reaches systemic circulation. This process significantly reduces the bioavailability of
certain oral medications. Understanding this concept helps nurses determine why oral
doses are often much higher than intravenous doses for the same medication.
2. A patient is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which lab value should the nurse
monitor to assess the therapeutic effect?
A. PTT
B. Platelet count
C. Hemoglobin
D. INR
Answer: D
Rationale: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the standardized measurement
used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Maintaining an INR within the target
range is essential to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding. Nurses must educate
patients on the importance of consistent vitamin K intake and regular lab checks.
3. Which medication is considered the antidote for an overdose of heparin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Glucagon
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Acetylcysteine
Answer: C
,Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antagonist used to neutralize the anticoagulant
effects of heparin. It works by forming a stable salt complex with the heparin molecule,
rendering it inactive. Prompt administration is critical in the event of life-threatening
hemorrhage during heparin therapy.
4. A patient with heart failure is taking digoxin. Which electrolyte imbalance increases the
risk of digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: Low potassium levels increase the sensitivity of the heart to digoxin, leading to
toxic manifestations such as arrhythmias. Digoxin and potassium compete for the same
binding sites on the sodium-potassium ATPase pump. Nurses should monitor serum
potassium levels closely, especially if the patient is also taking loop diuretics.
5. What is the most common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril?
A. Dry, non-productive cough
B. Hypokalemia
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypertension
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, which can lead to a
persistent dry cough in many patients. This side effect is often the reason for switching
patients to Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs). If the cough becomes intolerable,
clinical reasoning dictates a transition to a different drug class to ensure adherence.
6. Which education is most important for a patient starting a new prescription for a statin
drug?
A. Report any unexplained muscle pain or weakness
B. Take the medication with grapefruit juice
C. Expect the urine to turn bright orange
D. Stop the drug immediately if a headache occurs
Answer: A
, Rationale: Muscle pain or weakness can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a rare but serious
side effect of statin therapy. This condition involves the breakdown of muscle tissue which
can lead to acute renal failure. Timely reporting allows for laboratory assessment of
creatine kinase levels and prevention of permanent organ damage.
7. A nurse is preparing to administer albuterol via a metered-dose inhaler. What should the
nurse explain as the primary action of this drug?
A. Bronchodilation
B. Thinning respiratory secretions
C. Reducing airway inflammation
D. Suppressing the cough reflex
Answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that works by relaxing the smooth
muscles of the bronchi. This rapid bronchodilation provides quick relief during acute
asthma attacks or bronchospasm. Nurses must teach patients that this is a rescue inhaler
and should always be available for emergencies.
8. A patient is prescribed furosemide 40mg IV. What should the nurse assess before
administration?
A. Pupillary reaction and reflexes
B. Oxygen saturation and glucose
C. Heart rate and white blood cell count
D. Blood pressure and potassium level
Answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that can cause significant drops in blood
pressure and serum potassium. Rapid administration can also lead to ototoxicity, so the
rate should be monitored. Pre-administration assessment ensures the patient can safely
tolerate the volume loss and electrolyte shift.
9. Which type of insulin should the nurse expect to have the fastest onset of action?
A. Insulin Glargine
B. Insulin NPH
C. Regular Insulin
D. Insulin Lispro
Answer: D
