WISEMAN EDITION
STUDY RESOURCES
GALEN COLLEGE OF NURSING / COURSE REVIEW
NUR 230
MATERNAL &
PEDIATRIC
NURSING
COMPREHENSIVE FINAL EXAM REVIEW
ORIGINAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS
100 Full answers and detailed rationales
for maternal, newborn & pediatric care
01 02 03
MATERNAL CARE NEWBORN HEALTH PEDIATRIC NURSING
Includes NCLEX-style priorities, SATA & clinical judgment scenarios
GALEN COLLEGE OF NURSING WISEMAN EXAM PREP
Independent educational review material. Not an official exam or answer key.
Created by Wiseman Study Resources; not affiliated with Galen College of Nursing.
,NUR 230 – Maternal & Pediatric Nursing
Comprehensive Final Review
Galen College of Nursing | 2026/2027 Updated | 100 Original Practice Questions with Answers
and Rationales
Verification findings
I located Galen's January 2026 official catalog and a Fall 2026 NUR 230 syllabus listing.
Galen College of Nursing
+3
The most useful resource for your shop is consequently a 100-question comprehensive course
review covering both sequences, with clearly separated maternal and pediatric sections.
The verified course scope includes high-risk pregnancy, labor and delivery, postpartum and
newborn care, pediatric illnesses, growth and development, safe nursing care, and clinical
judgment.
This is an independently written educational resource, not an official Galen examination, leaked
test bank, or verified answer key. Every question below is original and includes its correct
answer and rationale.
Content distribution
Section Questions
Antepartum and high-risk pregnancy 1–15
Labor and delivery 16–30
Postpartum and newborn nursing 31–50
Pediatric growth, development and safety 51–60
Pediatric respiratory and cardiac disorders 61–70
Pediatric gastrointestinal, endocrine and renal disorders 71–80
Pediatric neurological, hematological and musculoskeletal disorders 81–90
Integrated clinical judgment and prioritization 91–100
Total 100
Question types: Single-best-answer, select-all-that-apply (SATA), and unfolding clinical
scenarios.
,Section 1: Antepartum and high-risk pregnancy
Questions 1–15 | Prenatal assessment, complications, maternal safety
Question 1
A nurse assesses a pregnant client who has previously delivered two infants at term and one at 35
weeks. The client also experienced one pregnancy loss at 10 weeks. All three children are living.
Which GTPAL documentation is correct for the current pregnancy?
A. G4 T2 P1 A1 L3 B. G5 T2 P1 A1 L3 C. G5 T3 P0 A1 L3 D. G4 T2 P1 A0 L3
Correct answer: B. G5 T2 P1 A1 L3
Rationale: Gravida includes every pregnancy, including the current one, giving G5. Two term
deliveries give T2, one preterm delivery gives P1, and the pregnancy loss before 20 weeks gives
A1. Three living children give L3. GTPAL records pregnancy history rather than simply
counting births.
Question 2
At 32 weeks of gestation, a pregnant client reports a persistent severe headache, blurred vision,
and upper abdominal discomfort. Which nursing action has the highest priority?
A. Recommend resting in a quiet room. B. Reassess symptoms at the next prenatal visit. C.
Arrange immediate assessment for preeclampsia with severe features. D. Explain that these
symptoms are expected during the third trimester.
Correct answer: C. Arrange immediate assessment for preeclampsia with severe features.
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and upper abdominal pain are concerning
manifestations of preeclampsia with severe features. Prompt blood pressure assessment, maternal
and fetal evaluation, and escalation are required. Delaying assessment risks serious maternal and
fetal complications.
ACOG
Question 3
A client at 34 weeks of gestation arrives with painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding. The uterus is
soft and nontender. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placental abruption B. Placenta previa C. Uterine rupture D. Preterm labor without
complications
, Correct answer: B. Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless bleeding during the second half of
pregnancy. Placental abruption more commonly involves abdominal pain and uterine tenderness.
The client requires prompt obstetric evaluation, and a digital vaginal examination should be
avoided until placental location has been established.
Question 4
A client at 36 weeks develops sudden abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and a firm, tender
uterus. Fetal monitoring reveals persistent bradycardia. Which complication is most likely?
A. Placenta previa B. Hyperemesis gravidarum C. Placental abruption D. Normal transition to
active labor
Correct answer: C. Placental abruption
Rationale: Abdominal pain, a rigid or tender uterus, bleeding, and fetal compromise are
characteristic of placental separation before delivery. This is an obstetric emergency requiring
immediate team response. The amount of visible bleeding may not reflect the full extent of blood
loss.
Question 5
A pregnant client has a blood pressure of 166/112 mmHg and reports visual disturbances. Which
finding makes this assessment especially urgent?
A. The client is in the third trimester. B. The client reports occasional heartburn. C. The blood
pressure reaches the severe hypertension range. D. The client has mild dependent ankle edema.
Correct answer: C. The blood pressure reaches the severe hypertension range.
Rationale: Systolic blood pressure of at least 160 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure of at least
110 mmHg is a severe-range finding. Severe hypertension increases the risk of maternal
neurological complications and requires urgent confirmation and management under obstetric
protocols.
Question 6 — SATA
A client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia is being monitored. Which findings may
indicate magnesium toxicity? Select all that apply.
A. Absent deep tendon reflexes B. Respiratory depression C. Markedly decreased urine output
D. Increasing alertness and normal reflexes E. Reduced level of consciousness
Correct answers: A, B, C, E
STUDY RESOURCES
GALEN COLLEGE OF NURSING / COURSE REVIEW
NUR 230
MATERNAL &
PEDIATRIC
NURSING
COMPREHENSIVE FINAL EXAM REVIEW
ORIGINAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS
100 Full answers and detailed rationales
for maternal, newborn & pediatric care
01 02 03
MATERNAL CARE NEWBORN HEALTH PEDIATRIC NURSING
Includes NCLEX-style priorities, SATA & clinical judgment scenarios
GALEN COLLEGE OF NURSING WISEMAN EXAM PREP
Independent educational review material. Not an official exam or answer key.
Created by Wiseman Study Resources; not affiliated with Galen College of Nursing.
,NUR 230 – Maternal & Pediatric Nursing
Comprehensive Final Review
Galen College of Nursing | 2026/2027 Updated | 100 Original Practice Questions with Answers
and Rationales
Verification findings
I located Galen's January 2026 official catalog and a Fall 2026 NUR 230 syllabus listing.
Galen College of Nursing
+3
The most useful resource for your shop is consequently a 100-question comprehensive course
review covering both sequences, with clearly separated maternal and pediatric sections.
The verified course scope includes high-risk pregnancy, labor and delivery, postpartum and
newborn care, pediatric illnesses, growth and development, safe nursing care, and clinical
judgment.
This is an independently written educational resource, not an official Galen examination, leaked
test bank, or verified answer key. Every question below is original and includes its correct
answer and rationale.
Content distribution
Section Questions
Antepartum and high-risk pregnancy 1–15
Labor and delivery 16–30
Postpartum and newborn nursing 31–50
Pediatric growth, development and safety 51–60
Pediatric respiratory and cardiac disorders 61–70
Pediatric gastrointestinal, endocrine and renal disorders 71–80
Pediatric neurological, hematological and musculoskeletal disorders 81–90
Integrated clinical judgment and prioritization 91–100
Total 100
Question types: Single-best-answer, select-all-that-apply (SATA), and unfolding clinical
scenarios.
,Section 1: Antepartum and high-risk pregnancy
Questions 1–15 | Prenatal assessment, complications, maternal safety
Question 1
A nurse assesses a pregnant client who has previously delivered two infants at term and one at 35
weeks. The client also experienced one pregnancy loss at 10 weeks. All three children are living.
Which GTPAL documentation is correct for the current pregnancy?
A. G4 T2 P1 A1 L3 B. G5 T2 P1 A1 L3 C. G5 T3 P0 A1 L3 D. G4 T2 P1 A0 L3
Correct answer: B. G5 T2 P1 A1 L3
Rationale: Gravida includes every pregnancy, including the current one, giving G5. Two term
deliveries give T2, one preterm delivery gives P1, and the pregnancy loss before 20 weeks gives
A1. Three living children give L3. GTPAL records pregnancy history rather than simply
counting births.
Question 2
At 32 weeks of gestation, a pregnant client reports a persistent severe headache, blurred vision,
and upper abdominal discomfort. Which nursing action has the highest priority?
A. Recommend resting in a quiet room. B. Reassess symptoms at the next prenatal visit. C.
Arrange immediate assessment for preeclampsia with severe features. D. Explain that these
symptoms are expected during the third trimester.
Correct answer: C. Arrange immediate assessment for preeclampsia with severe features.
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and upper abdominal pain are concerning
manifestations of preeclampsia with severe features. Prompt blood pressure assessment, maternal
and fetal evaluation, and escalation are required. Delaying assessment risks serious maternal and
fetal complications.
ACOG
Question 3
A client at 34 weeks of gestation arrives with painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding. The uterus is
soft and nontender. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placental abruption B. Placenta previa C. Uterine rupture D. Preterm labor without
complications
, Correct answer: B. Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless bleeding during the second half of
pregnancy. Placental abruption more commonly involves abdominal pain and uterine tenderness.
The client requires prompt obstetric evaluation, and a digital vaginal examination should be
avoided until placental location has been established.
Question 4
A client at 36 weeks develops sudden abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and a firm, tender
uterus. Fetal monitoring reveals persistent bradycardia. Which complication is most likely?
A. Placenta previa B. Hyperemesis gravidarum C. Placental abruption D. Normal transition to
active labor
Correct answer: C. Placental abruption
Rationale: Abdominal pain, a rigid or tender uterus, bleeding, and fetal compromise are
characteristic of placental separation before delivery. This is an obstetric emergency requiring
immediate team response. The amount of visible bleeding may not reflect the full extent of blood
loss.
Question 5
A pregnant client has a blood pressure of 166/112 mmHg and reports visual disturbances. Which
finding makes this assessment especially urgent?
A. The client is in the third trimester. B. The client reports occasional heartburn. C. The blood
pressure reaches the severe hypertension range. D. The client has mild dependent ankle edema.
Correct answer: C. The blood pressure reaches the severe hypertension range.
Rationale: Systolic blood pressure of at least 160 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure of at least
110 mmHg is a severe-range finding. Severe hypertension increases the risk of maternal
neurological complications and requires urgent confirmation and management under obstetric
protocols.
Question 6 — SATA
A client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia is being monitored. Which findings may
indicate magnesium toxicity? Select all that apply.
A. Absent deep tendon reflexes B. Respiratory depression C. Markedly decreased urine output
D. Increasing alertness and normal reflexes E. Reduced level of consciousness
Correct answers: A, B, C, E
