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CNOR (Certified Nurse Operating Room) Exam — 100 Practice Questions & Answers (2026–
2027)
Section 1: Pre/Postoperative Patient Assessment & Diagnosis (Questions 1–15)
1. An intrinsic factor that contributes to the development of a pressure injury is:
A) Hypothermia
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) General anesthesia
D) Surgical positioning
Answer: B. Intrinsic factors are internal conditions related to the patient's own health status.
Diabetes mellitus impairs circulation and nerve sensitivity, making tissue more vulnerable to
breakdown .
2. Which of the following helps determine a patient's discharge destination?
A) Written discharge instructions from anesthesiology
B) Risk of postoperative complications
C) Standardized pain scoring
D) General condition and readiness for discharge
Answer: B. The choice of discharge site is based on patient acuity, access to follow-up care,
and the potential for postoperative complications .
3. The patient has just been extubated following a tonsillectomy and begins wheezing,
which rapidly progresses to stridor. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Suction the airway
B) Set up an aerosol mask with racemic epinephrine
C) Administer IV corticosteroids
D) Reintubate the patient
Answer: A. Wheezing that progresses to stridor indicates laryngospasm. The immediate
priority is to clear the airway. Attempting to break the spasm by suctioning, which may
stimulate the vocal cords to relax, is the first step .
4. Which lab value is the best early indicator of hypovolemia?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Creatinine
C) Serum lactate
D) Urine specific gravity
Answer: C. In hypovolemia, decreased tissue perfusion leads to anaerobic metabolism and
elevated serum lactate. It rises more quickly than other markers, making it a sensitive early
indicator .
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5. A patient with a history of asthma is undergoing an appendectomy. Which anesthetic
agent has the highest risk of triggering bronchospasm?
A) Propofol
B) Sevoflurane
C) Thiopental
D) Ketamine
Answer: C. Thiopental, an older barbiturate, is known to release histamine, which can cause
bronchospasm in susceptible patients, especially those with asthma .
6. A patient presents with a suspected spinal cord injury at C5. Which finding is most
critical to identify preoperatively?
A) Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg
B) Pulse oximetry 95% on room air
C) Paradoxical abdominal breathing
D) Bladder distension
Answer: C. Paradoxical abdominal breathing indicates diaphragmatic dysfunction from
phrenic nerve compromise (C3–C5), suggesting impending respiratory failure .
7. Which intraoperative fluid is the most appropriate initial resuscitation for hemorrhagic
shock?
A) 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
B) 0.9% Normal Saline (NS)
C) Lactated Ringer's (LR)
D) Hetastarch
Answer: C. Lactated Ringer's is an isotonic crystalloid that closely resembles plasma, making
it the preferred initial fluid for hemorrhagic shock .
8. The nurse is assessing a patient 1 hour postoperatively following a laparoscopic
cholecystectomy. The patient reports severe shoulder pain. This pain is most likely caused
by:
A) A complication of the surgery
B) The patient's positioning during the procedure
C) Referred pain from the gallbladder bed
D) Irritation of the phrenic nerve from retained CO2
Answer: D. During laparoscopy, CO2 gas is insufflated to create a working space. This gas can
rise and irritate the phrenic nerve, causing referred pain to the shoulder (Kehr's sign) .
9. Which type of surgical wound is classified as "Clean-Contaminated"?
A) Hernia repair
B) Appendectomy for acute, non-ruptured appendicitis
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C) Open fracture
D) Perforated bowel
Answer: B. A clean-contaminated wound is a surgical wound in which the respiratory,
alimentary, genital, or urinary tract is entered under controlled conditions without unusual
contamination. Appendectomy for non-ruptured appendicitis is an example .
10. When providing patient education for a child, it is important to understand which
learning characteristics of children?
A) Children are self-directed
B) Children use intrinsic thought processes
C) Children respond to use of activities that follow transitions of maturity
D) Children respond to a trial-and-error approach
Answer: D. When teaching children, using a trial-and-error approach is effective. Child
learners are task-oriented, use extrinsic thought processes, and value self-esteem .
11. A patient with a known allergy to latex is scheduled for surgery. Which action is the
priority?
A) Schedule the patient first in the morning
B) Ensure a latex-free environment and supplies are available
C) Administer prophylactic antihistamines
D) Place the patient in a private room
Answer: B. The priority is preventing exposure. A latex-free environment with latex-free
supplies must be prepared before the patient enters the OR.
12. Which preoperative laboratory value would most concern the perioperative nurse for a
patient scheduled for surgery?
A) Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
B) Platelet count 45,000/mm³
C) WBC 7,500/mm³
D) Glucose 110 mg/dL
Answer: B. A platelet count of 45,000/mm³ indicates severe thrombocytopenia and places
the patient at high risk for bleeding during surgery.
13. A patient is taking warfarin (Coumadin) preoperatively. Which lab value should the
nurse monitor?
A) aPTT
B) INR
C) Bleeding time
D) Fibrinogen
Answer: B. Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is monitored by the International Normalized
Ratio (INR).
CNOR (Certified Nurse Operating Room) Exam — 100 Practice Questions & Answers (2026–
2027)
Section 1: Pre/Postoperative Patient Assessment & Diagnosis (Questions 1–15)
1. An intrinsic factor that contributes to the development of a pressure injury is:
A) Hypothermia
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) General anesthesia
D) Surgical positioning
Answer: B. Intrinsic factors are internal conditions related to the patient's own health status.
Diabetes mellitus impairs circulation and nerve sensitivity, making tissue more vulnerable to
breakdown .
2. Which of the following helps determine a patient's discharge destination?
A) Written discharge instructions from anesthesiology
B) Risk of postoperative complications
C) Standardized pain scoring
D) General condition and readiness for discharge
Answer: B. The choice of discharge site is based on patient acuity, access to follow-up care,
and the potential for postoperative complications .
3. The patient has just been extubated following a tonsillectomy and begins wheezing,
which rapidly progresses to stridor. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Suction the airway
B) Set up an aerosol mask with racemic epinephrine
C) Administer IV corticosteroids
D) Reintubate the patient
Answer: A. Wheezing that progresses to stridor indicates laryngospasm. The immediate
priority is to clear the airway. Attempting to break the spasm by suctioning, which may
stimulate the vocal cords to relax, is the first step .
4. Which lab value is the best early indicator of hypovolemia?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Creatinine
C) Serum lactate
D) Urine specific gravity
Answer: C. In hypovolemia, decreased tissue perfusion leads to anaerobic metabolism and
elevated serum lactate. It rises more quickly than other markers, making it a sensitive early
indicator .
, 2
5. A patient with a history of asthma is undergoing an appendectomy. Which anesthetic
agent has the highest risk of triggering bronchospasm?
A) Propofol
B) Sevoflurane
C) Thiopental
D) Ketamine
Answer: C. Thiopental, an older barbiturate, is known to release histamine, which can cause
bronchospasm in susceptible patients, especially those with asthma .
6. A patient presents with a suspected spinal cord injury at C5. Which finding is most
critical to identify preoperatively?
A) Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg
B) Pulse oximetry 95% on room air
C) Paradoxical abdominal breathing
D) Bladder distension
Answer: C. Paradoxical abdominal breathing indicates diaphragmatic dysfunction from
phrenic nerve compromise (C3–C5), suggesting impending respiratory failure .
7. Which intraoperative fluid is the most appropriate initial resuscitation for hemorrhagic
shock?
A) 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
B) 0.9% Normal Saline (NS)
C) Lactated Ringer's (LR)
D) Hetastarch
Answer: C. Lactated Ringer's is an isotonic crystalloid that closely resembles plasma, making
it the preferred initial fluid for hemorrhagic shock .
8. The nurse is assessing a patient 1 hour postoperatively following a laparoscopic
cholecystectomy. The patient reports severe shoulder pain. This pain is most likely caused
by:
A) A complication of the surgery
B) The patient's positioning during the procedure
C) Referred pain from the gallbladder bed
D) Irritation of the phrenic nerve from retained CO2
Answer: D. During laparoscopy, CO2 gas is insufflated to create a working space. This gas can
rise and irritate the phrenic nerve, causing referred pain to the shoulder (Kehr's sign) .
9. Which type of surgical wound is classified as "Clean-Contaminated"?
A) Hernia repair
B) Appendectomy for acute, non-ruptured appendicitis
, 3
C) Open fracture
D) Perforated bowel
Answer: B. A clean-contaminated wound is a surgical wound in which the respiratory,
alimentary, genital, or urinary tract is entered under controlled conditions without unusual
contamination. Appendectomy for non-ruptured appendicitis is an example .
10. When providing patient education for a child, it is important to understand which
learning characteristics of children?
A) Children are self-directed
B) Children use intrinsic thought processes
C) Children respond to use of activities that follow transitions of maturity
D) Children respond to a trial-and-error approach
Answer: D. When teaching children, using a trial-and-error approach is effective. Child
learners are task-oriented, use extrinsic thought processes, and value self-esteem .
11. A patient with a known allergy to latex is scheduled for surgery. Which action is the
priority?
A) Schedule the patient first in the morning
B) Ensure a latex-free environment and supplies are available
C) Administer prophylactic antihistamines
D) Place the patient in a private room
Answer: B. The priority is preventing exposure. A latex-free environment with latex-free
supplies must be prepared before the patient enters the OR.
12. Which preoperative laboratory value would most concern the perioperative nurse for a
patient scheduled for surgery?
A) Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
B) Platelet count 45,000/mm³
C) WBC 7,500/mm³
D) Glucose 110 mg/dL
Answer: B. A platelet count of 45,000/mm³ indicates severe thrombocytopenia and places
the patient at high risk for bleeding during surgery.
13. A patient is taking warfarin (Coumadin) preoperatively. Which lab value should the
nurse monitor?
A) aPTT
B) INR
C) Bleeding time
D) Fibrinogen
Answer: B. Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is monitored by the International Normalized
Ratio (INR).
