NURS 5315 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam
3 2026/2027 | 300 Verified Questions &
Answers | UT Arlington Nursing Prep | 6 Core
Domains | Instant Download
1. Which of the following best describes metaplasia?
A) Increase in cell size
B) Reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another
C) Increase in cell number
D) Programmed cell death
Answer: B
Rationale: Metaplasia is an adaptive change where one differentiated cell type is replaced by another,
often due to chronic irritation.
2. A biopsy of the cervix shows dysplastic cells. This finding indicates:
A) Normal tissue
B) Disordered growth with atypical cells
C) Malignant transformation
D) Inflammatory response
Answer: B
Rationale: Dysplasia is characterized by disordered growth and atypical cells, often a precursor to
malignancy.
3. Which type of necrosis is most commonly associated with ischemia in the heart?
A) Fat necrosis
B) Coagulative necrosis
C) Liquefactive necrosis
,D) Caseous necrosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Coagulative necrosis occurs in ischemic injury to solid organs like the heart, kidney, and
spleen.
4. Apoptosis differs from necrosis in that apoptosis:
A) Causes inflammation
B) Is an active, programmed process
C) Affects groups of cells
D) Is always pathological
Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis is a regulated, energy-dependent process that does not cause inflammation.
5. Which of the following is a major mechanism of cellular injury caused by free radicals?
A) DNA repair
B) Lipid peroxidation of membranes
C) Increased ATP production
D) Enhanced protein synthesis
Answer: B
Rationale: Free radicals cause lipid peroxidation, damaging cell membranes and leading to cell death.
6. A patient with a bacterial infection has an elevated white blood cell count with a "left shift."
This indicates:
A) Viral infection
B) Release of immature neutrophils from the bone marrow
C) Allergic reaction
D) Immunosuppression
Answer: B
2
,Rationale: A left shift refers to an increase in band neutrophils, indicating acute bacterial infection.
7. Which cytokine is primarily responsible for fever?
A) Interleukin-4
B) Interleukin-1
C) Interferon-gamma
D) Tumor necrosis factor-beta
Answer: B
Rationale: IL-1 is a pyrogen that acts on the hypothalamus to produce fever.
8. A patient experiences anaphylaxis after a bee sting. This is an example of which type of
hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Type I
B) Type I
C) Type II
D) Type III
Answer: B
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reaction.
9. In autoimmune hemolytic anemia, antibodies destroy red blood cells. This is a:
A) Type I hypersensitivity
B) Type II hypersensitivity
C) Type III hypersensitivity
D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: B
Rationale: Type II hypersensitivity involves IgG or IgM antibodies directed against antigens on cell
surfaces.
3
, 10. Which of the following is a characteristic of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A) Organ-specific autoantibodies
B) Immune complex deposition in multiple organs
C) IgE-mediated mast cell activation
D) T-cell mediated cytotoxicity
Answer: B
Rationale: SLE is a Type III hypersensitivity disease with immune complex deposition causing widespread
inflammation.
11. A patient with HIV has a CD4 count of 150 cells/mm³. Which opportunistic infection is most
likely?
A) Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
B) Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
C) Streptococcal pneumonia
D) Influenza
Answer: B
Rationale: PJP typically occurs when CD4 count falls below 200 cells/mm³.
12. Which of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder?
A) Huntington’s disease
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Marfan syndrome
D) Neurofibromatosis type 1
Answer: B
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene.
13. A child with Down syndrome has which chromosomal abnormality?
4
3 2026/2027 | 300 Verified Questions &
Answers | UT Arlington Nursing Prep | 6 Core
Domains | Instant Download
1. Which of the following best describes metaplasia?
A) Increase in cell size
B) Reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another
C) Increase in cell number
D) Programmed cell death
Answer: B
Rationale: Metaplasia is an adaptive change where one differentiated cell type is replaced by another,
often due to chronic irritation.
2. A biopsy of the cervix shows dysplastic cells. This finding indicates:
A) Normal tissue
B) Disordered growth with atypical cells
C) Malignant transformation
D) Inflammatory response
Answer: B
Rationale: Dysplasia is characterized by disordered growth and atypical cells, often a precursor to
malignancy.
3. Which type of necrosis is most commonly associated with ischemia in the heart?
A) Fat necrosis
B) Coagulative necrosis
C) Liquefactive necrosis
,D) Caseous necrosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Coagulative necrosis occurs in ischemic injury to solid organs like the heart, kidney, and
spleen.
4. Apoptosis differs from necrosis in that apoptosis:
A) Causes inflammation
B) Is an active, programmed process
C) Affects groups of cells
D) Is always pathological
Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis is a regulated, energy-dependent process that does not cause inflammation.
5. Which of the following is a major mechanism of cellular injury caused by free radicals?
A) DNA repair
B) Lipid peroxidation of membranes
C) Increased ATP production
D) Enhanced protein synthesis
Answer: B
Rationale: Free radicals cause lipid peroxidation, damaging cell membranes and leading to cell death.
6. A patient with a bacterial infection has an elevated white blood cell count with a "left shift."
This indicates:
A) Viral infection
B) Release of immature neutrophils from the bone marrow
C) Allergic reaction
D) Immunosuppression
Answer: B
2
,Rationale: A left shift refers to an increase in band neutrophils, indicating acute bacterial infection.
7. Which cytokine is primarily responsible for fever?
A) Interleukin-4
B) Interleukin-1
C) Interferon-gamma
D) Tumor necrosis factor-beta
Answer: B
Rationale: IL-1 is a pyrogen that acts on the hypothalamus to produce fever.
8. A patient experiences anaphylaxis after a bee sting. This is an example of which type of
hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Type I
B) Type I
C) Type II
D) Type III
Answer: B
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reaction.
9. In autoimmune hemolytic anemia, antibodies destroy red blood cells. This is a:
A) Type I hypersensitivity
B) Type II hypersensitivity
C) Type III hypersensitivity
D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: B
Rationale: Type II hypersensitivity involves IgG or IgM antibodies directed against antigens on cell
surfaces.
3
, 10. Which of the following is a characteristic of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A) Organ-specific autoantibodies
B) Immune complex deposition in multiple organs
C) IgE-mediated mast cell activation
D) T-cell mediated cytotoxicity
Answer: B
Rationale: SLE is a Type III hypersensitivity disease with immune complex deposition causing widespread
inflammation.
11. A patient with HIV has a CD4 count of 150 cells/mm³. Which opportunistic infection is most
likely?
A) Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
B) Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
C) Streptococcal pneumonia
D) Influenza
Answer: B
Rationale: PJP typically occurs when CD4 count falls below 200 cells/mm³.
12. Which of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder?
A) Huntington’s disease
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Marfan syndrome
D) Neurofibromatosis type 1
Answer: B
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene.
13. A child with Down syndrome has which chromosomal abnormality?
4
