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NURS 5315 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 2 2026/2027 | 300+ Verified Questions & Answers | UT Arlington Nursing Prep | 6 Core Domains | Instant Download

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Get ready for the NURS 5315 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 2 (2026/2027) with this comprehensive UT Arlington nursing exam prep resource featuring 300+ practice questions and answers across six core domains. Designed to support focused revision and strengthen your understanding of advanced pathophysiology, this study guide reviews essential concepts such as disease mechanisms, clinical manifestations, physiological changes, diagnostic findings, and disease progression. Use the practice questions to evaluate your knowledge, identify areas for improvement, reinforce key concepts, and develop stronger clinical reasoning skills before your assessment. Ideal for nursing students seeking structured and convenient exam preparation, this resource helps you organize your study sessions and review important material at your own pace. Enjoy instant PDF download access and study anytime, anywhere with this NURS 5315 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 2 review guide.

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NURS 5315 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 2
2026/2027 | 300 Verified Questions & Answers |
UT Arlington Nursing Prep | 6 Core Domains |
Instant Download
Questions 1–300


1. Which of the following best describes atrophy?
A) Increase in cell size
B) Decrease in cell size
C) Increase in cell number
D) Disordered cell growth
Answer: B
Rationale: Atrophy is a reduction in cell size due to decreased workload, hormone stimulation, or
nutrition.




2. Hypertrophy of the myocardium is an example of:
A) Pathological adaptation to increased workload
B) Physiological adaptation to increased workload
C) Metaplasia
D) Dysplasia
Answer: B
Rationale: Cardiac hypertrophy occurs in response to increased demand, such as hypertension or
exercise.




3. A biopsy of the bronchial epithelium in a smoker shows replacement of columnar epithelium
with squamous epithelium. This is:
A) Dysplasia
B) Metaplasia

,C) Anaplasia
D) Atrophy
Answer: B
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another in response to
chronic irritation.




4. Which type of necrosis is characteristic of tuberculosis?
A) Coagulative
B) Liquefactive
C) Caseous
D) Fat
Answer: C
Rationale: Caseous necrosis is a combination of coagulative and liquefactive necrosis, typical of
tuberculosis.




5. Apoptosis is characterized by:
A) Cell swelling and lysis
B) Cell shrinkage and fragmentation without inflammation
C) Inflammatory response
D) Coagulation of proteins
Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis is programmed cell death with cell shrinkage, chromatin condensation, and no
inflammation.




6. Which of the following is a major mechanism of reperfusion injury?
A) Decreased oxygen delivery
B) Generation of reactive oxygen species
C) Reduced inflammatory response

2

,D) Decreased calcium influx
Answer: B
Rationale: Reperfusion injury occurs when blood flow is restored, leading to free radical production and
cell damage.




7. A patient with a bacterial infection has an elevated white blood cell count with a "left shift."
This indicates:
A) Viral infection
B) Release of immature neutrophils from the bone marrow
C) Allergic reaction
D) Immunosuppression
Answer: B
Rationale: A left shift refers to an increase in band neutrophils, indicating acute bacterial infection.




8. Which cytokine is primarily responsible for fever?
A) Interleukin-4
B) Interleukin-1
C) Interferon-gamma
D) Tumor necrosis factor-beta
Answer: B
Rationale: IL-1 is a pyrogen that acts on the hypothalamus to produce fever.




9. A patient experiences anaphylaxis after a bee sting. This is an example of which type of
hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Type I
B) Type I
C) Type II
D) Type III

3

, Answer: B
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reaction.




10. In autoimmune hemolytic anemia, antibodies destroy red blood cells. This is a:
A) Type I hypersensitivity
B) Type II hypersensitivity
C) Type III hypersensitivity
D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: B
Rationale: Type II hypersensitivity involves IgG or IgM antibodies directed against antigens on cell
surfaces.




11. Which of the following is a characteristic of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A) Organ-specific autoantibodies
B) Immune complex deposition in multiple organs
C) IgE-mediated mast cell activation
D) T-cell mediated cytotoxicity
Answer: B
Rationale: SLE is a Type III hypersensitivity disease with immune complex deposition causing widespread
inflammation.




12. A patient with HIV has a CD4 count of 150 cells/mm³. Which opportunistic infection is most
likely?
A) Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
B) Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
C) Streptococcal pneumonia
D) Influenza
Answer: B

4

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