PrepJet EPPP Practice Exams 5, 6 & 7 - Exam Questions & Verified Answers
The DSM-5 diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity C
disorder (ADHD) requires an onset of symptoms before
_____ years of age and a duration of symptoms for at EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-02 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5
least _____ months. diagnosis of ADHD requires the presence of characteristic symptoms in at least two
A. 9; 3 settings (e.g., at home and at school) with symptoms having an onset before 12
B. 9; 6 years of age and a duration of at least six months.
C. 12; 6
D. 12; 9
Aronson and Mills (1959) found that college students who D
experienced a very unpleasant initiation in order to be
accepted into a group subsequently expressed more liking EPPP-F1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-06 Answer D is correct. The results of
for the group than did college students who did not the E. Aronson and J. Mills study confirmed the prediction of cognitive dissonance
experience the unpleasant initiation. This result supports theory that subjects would justify the suffering they endured to be accepted into a
which of the following? group by deciding that the group was worth the suffering [The effect of severity of
A. theory of planned behavior initiation on liking for a group, The Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology,
B. elaboration likelihood model 59(2), 17-181, 1959].
C. social judgment theory
D. cognitive dissonance theory
Which of the following is not one of the required conditions C
for a claim of malpractice?
A. professional relationship EPPP-F1-ETH-Professional Issues-28 Answer C is correct. Four conditions are
B. direct or proximate causation required for a claim of malpractice: (a) The psychologist must have had a
C. negligence professional relationship with the client that established the psychologist's duty to
D. dereliction or breach of duty conform to a professional standard of care. (b) There was a dereliction or breach of
the duty on the part of the psychologist. (c) The client suffered injury or harm as a
result of this dereliction or breach. (d) The psychologist's dereliction or breach of
duty was the direct or proximate cause of the person's harm or injury. Negligence
(answer C) is a possible cause of a breach of duty (answer D) but it's not required
for a claim of malpractice because a breach of duty can be due other factors.
While developing a new test of job knowledge, a test B
developer administers the test items to a sample of 50
recently hired employees. Based on the results, he EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity - Criterion-Related Validity-10 Answer B is correct. To
eliminates a few items and changes several other items to identify the correct answer to this question, you have to recognize that the test
increase the test's reliability and validity. When he developer cross-validated the test when she administered it to a new sample and
readministers the test along with a measure of job know that validity coefficients tend to be lower for the cross-validation sample than
performance to the same sample, he obtains a criterion- for the original sample. This is referred to as "shrinkage," and it occurs because all
related validity coefficient of .65. If he then administers the the chance factors that contributed to the correlation between the job knowledge
test and measure of job performance to a different sample test (predictor) and measure of job performance (criterion) for the sample that was
of 50 recently hired employees, he's most likely to obtain a used to develop the test are not likely to be present in the cross-validation sample.
validity coefficient that is:
A. greater than .65.
B. less than .65.
C. greater or less than .65.
D. equal to .65.
Opioid-induced respiratory depression is due to the effects B
of opiates on receptors in the:
A. substantia nigra. EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions - Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical
B. medulla. Forebrain Structures-03 Answer B is correct. The medulla controls respiration and
C. striatum. other vital autonomic functions. Opioids and opioid agonists produce respiratory
D. thalamus. depression by reducing the responsiveness of the medulla's respiratory center to
carbon dioxide.
The risk for developing agranulocytosis, a potentially fatal D
blood disorder, is greatest for which of the following
antipsychotic drugs? EPPP-F1-PHY-Psychopharmacology - Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-22
A. chlorpromazine Answer D is correct. Agranulocytosis is a potential side effect of several
B. fluphenazine antipsychotics but most often occurs with clozapine use. See, e.g., W. Austin and M.
C. risperidone A. Boyd, Psychiatric and mental health nursing for Canadian practice (2nd ed.),
D. clozapine Philadelphia, Wolters Kluwer/Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2010.
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, PrepJet EPPP Practice Exams 5, 6 & 7 - Exam Questions & Verified Answers
Which of the following is most useful for identifying the D
behavioral anchors that are incorporated into behaviorally
anchored rating scales (BARS)? EPPP-F1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-03 Answer D is correct.
A. needs analysis Knowing that behavioral anchors are descriptions of specific job behaviors that
B. organizational analysis represent good, average, and poor performance would have helped you identify the
C. paired comparison technique critical incident technique as being most useful for developing BARS. Note that,
D. critical incident technique while the critical incident technique is ordinarily used to identify extreme behaviors
(i.e., very successful and very unsuccessful behaviors), the terms "critical incident"
and "critical incident technique" are sometimes used more generally to refer to
descriptions of specific job-related behaviors.
When a predictor included in a multiple regression B
equation has a negative beta weight, this means that:
A. The predictor has a negative correlation with the other EPPP-F1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-07 Answer B is correct. Beta weights
predictors. are standardized regression coefficients, and a predictor's beta weight indicates the
B. The predictor has a negative correlation with the strength of the relationship between the predictor and the criterion. When a
criterion. predictor's beta weight is positive, this means there's a positive relationship
C. The predictor has a statistically significant relationship between the predictor and criterion (i.e., as scores on the predictor increase, scores
with the criterion. on the criterion increase). Conversely, when the beta weight is negative, this means
D. The predictor does not have a statistically significant there's a negative relationship between the predictor and criterion (i.e., as scores on
relationship with the criterion. the predictor increase, scores on the criterion decrease).
A utility analysis of an employee selection program will C
provide information on which of the following?
A. the criterion-related validity of a new selection technique EPPP-F1-ORG-Employee Selection - Evaluation of Techniques-07 Answer C is
B. the risk for adverse impact when using a new selection correct. Utility analysis is used to obtain information on the monetary value (return
technique on investment) of a selection test, training program, or other employment practice.
C. the monetary costs and benefits of using a new
selection technique
D. the reactions of job applicants to a new selection
technique
Esketamine, a nasal spray version of ketamine, has been B
found to be an effective treatment for:
A. treatment-resistant mania. EPPP-F1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders--25 Answer B is correct. Of the
B. treatment-resistant depression. disorders listed in the answers, ketamine has been found to be an effective
C. tobacco-use disorder. treatment only for treatment-resistant depression (TRD). Definitions of TRD vary,
D. opioid use disorder. but it is often defined as involving an inadequate response to at least two
antidepressants from different classes.
A study conducted by Kaczynski, Lindahl, Malik, and B
Laurenceau (2006) confirmed their hypothesis that the
relationship between marital conflict and child adjustment EPPP-F1-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-02 Answer B is correct. Mediator
was due to the impact of marital conflict on parenting style variables are also known as intervening variables and explain the relationship
which, in turn, impacted child adjustment. In this situation, between two other variables. Kaczynski et al. found that the relationship between
parenting style is a(n) ________ variable. marital conflict and child adjustment was explained (mediated) by parenting style. In
A. moderator others, they found that parenting style was a mediating variable. [K. J. Kaczynski, K.
B. mediator M. Lindahl, N. M. Malik, and J. Laurenceau, Marital conflict, maternal and paternal
C. extraneous parenting, and child adjustment: A test of mediation and moderation, Journal of
D. independent Family Psychology, 20, 199-208, 2006.]
In a positively skewed distribution of scores, the A
__________ is the lowest score and the __________ is
the highest score. EPPP-F1-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-01 Answer A is correct. Skewed
A. mode; mean distributions are asymmetrical with most scores "piled up" in one tail of the
B. mean; mode distribution and a few scores in the other tail: In a positively skewed distribution, the
C. median; mean few scores are in the positive tail (the high end of the distribution); in a negatively
D. mean; median skewed distribution, the few scores are in the negative tail (the low end of the
distribution) - i.e., the "tail tells the tale." In both distributions, the mean, median,
and mode do not equal the same value: Instead, the mean is in the tail with the few
scores, the median is in the middle, and the mode is in the tail containing most of
the scores. Consequently, in a positively skewed distribution, the mean is the
highest score, the median is the middle score, and the mode is the lowest score.
Conversely, in a negatively skewed distribution, the mean is the lowest score, the
median is the middle score, and the mode is the highest score.
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, PrepJet EPPP Practice Exams 5, 6 & 7 - Exam Questions & Verified Answers
In the context of classical conditioning, blocking occurs D
when:
A. a previously conditioned CS is repeatedly presented EPPP-F1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-01 Answer D is correct. Blocking occurs when
with a new US. a new neutral stimulus is simultaneously presented with a previously conditioned
B. a previously conditioned CS is repeatedly presented stimulus (CS) before presenting the unconditioned stimulus (US). In this situation,
after the US. the new neutral stimulus will not become a conditioned stimulus and will not elicit a
C. a new neutral stimulus and a previously conditioned CS conditioned response when presented alone. This occurs because classical
are presented together after presentation of the US. conditioning of the first neutral (conditioned) stimulus blocks classical conditioning
D. a new neutral stimulus and a previously conditioned CS of the second neutral stimulus, apparently because the second neutral stimulus
are presented together before presentation of the US. does not provide any new information about the occurrence of the unconditioned
stimulus.
You work at a community health center that employs three A
licensed psychologists, several physicians, and a marriage
and family therapist. You overhear two members of the EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-02 Answer A is
clerical staff complaining about the behavior of one of the correct. This answer is most consistent with Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of the APA
licensed psychologists, and it sounds like her behavior Ethics Code and Standards II.43 and II.44 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which
violates ethical guidelines. Assuming that client require psychologists to take action when they believe another psychologist has
confidentiality is not an issue and that you are not legally acted unethically as long as doing so does not violate client confidentiality.
required to report the psychologist's behavior to Consequently, of the answers given, this is the best one.
appropriate authorities, your best course of action is to:
A. discuss the possible ethical violation with the
psychologist.
B. advise the staff members of their options.
C. do nothing unless you have reason to believe the
psychologist will repeat the behavior in the future.
D. do nothing unless you have reason to believe the
psychologist's behavior has caused substantial harm.
When a test developer uses varimax to rotate the factors B
identified in a factor analysis, the rotated factors are
__________, which means that they're uncorrelated: EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity - Content and Construct Validity-04 Answer B is correct.
A. oblique. To identify the correct answer to this question, you do NOT need to be familiar with
B. orthogonal. varimax rotation: You just need to know that, in the context of factor analysis,
C. heterogeneous. orthogonal factors are uncorrelated while oblique factors are correlated. (Varimax is
D. homogeneous. one of several methods of factor rotation that produces orthogonal factors.)
To calculate the standard error of measurement for a newly D
developed test, you need which of the following?
A. the test's mean and reliability coefficient EPPP-F1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-02 Answer D is correct. A test's
B. the test's standard deviation and the sample size standard error of measurement is used to construct a confidence interval around an
C. the test's standard deviation and validity coefficient examinee's obtained score. It's calculated by multiplying the test's standard
D. the test's standard deviation and reliability coefficient deviation times the square root of 1 minus its reliability coefficient.
A researcher conducts a study to determine if there are D
gender differences in acceptance as a graduate student
into the six largest departments at a university. To analyze EPPP-F1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-10 Answer D is correct. The first and
the data she collects in this study, the researcher will use second steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are identifying the study's
which of the following? independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the
A. one-way ANOVA dependent variable. This study has two variables - gender and department - and
B. two-way ANOVA gender can be viewed as the independent variable and department as the
C. single-sample chi-square test dependent variable. The dependent variable - department - is a nominal variable.
D. multiple-sample chi-square test The chi-square test is the appropriate test for analyzing nominal data and, when a
study has two or more variables, the multiple-sample chi-square test is used. Keep
in mind that, for the chi-square test, you count the total number of variables
regardless of whether they're independent or dependent variables: The multiple-
sample chi-square test is used when the study has two or more variables, and the
single-sample chi-square test is used when a study is a descriptive study and has
only one variable.
Conduction aphasia is characterized by: C
A. impaired comprehension, fluent aphasia, anomia, and
impaired repetition. EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions - Cerebral Cortex-07 Answer C is correct.
B. impaired comprehension, nonfluent aphasia, anomia, Conduction aphasia is characterized by relatively intact comprehension with fluent
and impaired repetition. speech that contains many errors, anomia, and impaired repetition. It's caused by
C. relatively intact comprehension, fluent aphasia, anomia, damage to the arcuate fasciculus, which connects Wernicke's area to Broca's area.
and impaired repetition.
D. relatively intact comprehension, nonfluent aphasia,
anomia, and unimpaired repetition.
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, PrepJet EPPP Practice Exams 5, 6 & 7 - Exam Questions & Verified Answers
As described by Baddeley (2000), the __________ is D
responsible for integrating information in working memory
with information in long-term memory. EPPP-F1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-13 Answer D is correct. A. D. Baddeley's
A. phonological loop multi-component model of working memory describes it as consisting of a central
B. sensory register executive and three subcomponents - the phonological loop, visuo-spatial
C. visuo-spatial sketchpad sketchpad, and episodic buffer. The episodic buffer is a temporary storage system
D. episodic buffer that's responsible for combining new verbal and visual information from the
phonological loop and visuo-spatial sketchpad and integrating that information with
information that's already stored in long-term memory (The episodic buffer: A new
component of working memory, Trends in Cognitive Science, 4, 417-423, 2000).
As described by Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory, a B
parent's workplace, the child's extended family, and the
mass media are part of the child's: EPPP-F1-LIF-Early Influences on Development - Nature vs. Nurture-02 Answer B is
A. mesosystem. correct. Ecological theory distinguishes between five environmental systems that
B. exosystem. impact a child's development: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem,
C. microsystem. macrosystem, and chronosystem. The exosystem consists of elements in the
D. macrosystem. environment that the child is not in direct contact with but affect the child's
immediate environment. These elements include the parents' places of work, the
extended family, neighbors, mass media, and community health services.
Which of the following is an example of a morpheme? C
A. ba-ba
B. sh EPPP-F1-LIF-Language Development-08 Answer C is correct. Morphemes are the
C. do smallest units of language that have meaning and cannot be broken down into
D. d smaller parts. They include free morphemes that can stand alone as a word (e.g.,
do, dog) and bound morphemes that must be combined with at least one other
morpheme to form a word (e.g., ing, er). Phonemes (e.g., sh, d) are the smallest
units of sound that can be understood in a language.
An accumulation of neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary C
tangles in the entorhinal cortex, hippocampus, and
amygdala is associated with which of the following? EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-27 Answer C is correct. Neurocognitive
A. neurocognitive disorder due to HIV infection disorder due to Alzheimer's disease has been linked to a progressive accumulation
B. neurocognitive disorder due to Parkinson's disease of extracellular amyloid-predominant neuritic plaques and intracellular tau-
C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease predominant neurofibrillary tangles in the areas of the brain listed in this question.
D. frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder
One of the questions included in a survey asks employees B
to rate the degree to which the processes used by the
company to make decisions about employee raises, EPPP-F1-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-25 Answer B is correct. A
bonuses, and promotions are fair. This question assesses distinction is made between three types of organizational justice: distributive,
employees' perceptions about which of the following? procedural, and interactional. Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the
A. distributive justice procedures and processes used to determine outcomes.
B. procedural justice
C. normative justice
D. interactional justice
When a predictor has a reliability coefficient of .64, you can C
conclude that its criterion-related validity coefficient can be
no larger than: EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity - Criterion-Related Validity-09 Answer C is correct. To
A. .36. identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that a predictor's
B. .64. criterion-related validity coefficient can be no larger than the square root of its
C. .80. reliability coefficient. When the predictor's reliability coefficient is .64, this means it's
D. 1.0. validity coefficient can be no larger than the square root of .64, which is .80. Note
that, on the EPPP, if you have to determine the square root of a number, it will be an
"easy" number like .81, .64, or .49. You do NOT have to know how to calculate a
square root.
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The DSM-5 diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity C
disorder (ADHD) requires an onset of symptoms before
_____ years of age and a duration of symptoms for at EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-02 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5
least _____ months. diagnosis of ADHD requires the presence of characteristic symptoms in at least two
A. 9; 3 settings (e.g., at home and at school) with symptoms having an onset before 12
B. 9; 6 years of age and a duration of at least six months.
C. 12; 6
D. 12; 9
Aronson and Mills (1959) found that college students who D
experienced a very unpleasant initiation in order to be
accepted into a group subsequently expressed more liking EPPP-F1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-06 Answer D is correct. The results of
for the group than did college students who did not the E. Aronson and J. Mills study confirmed the prediction of cognitive dissonance
experience the unpleasant initiation. This result supports theory that subjects would justify the suffering they endured to be accepted into a
which of the following? group by deciding that the group was worth the suffering [The effect of severity of
A. theory of planned behavior initiation on liking for a group, The Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology,
B. elaboration likelihood model 59(2), 17-181, 1959].
C. social judgment theory
D. cognitive dissonance theory
Which of the following is not one of the required conditions C
for a claim of malpractice?
A. professional relationship EPPP-F1-ETH-Professional Issues-28 Answer C is correct. Four conditions are
B. direct or proximate causation required for a claim of malpractice: (a) The psychologist must have had a
C. negligence professional relationship with the client that established the psychologist's duty to
D. dereliction or breach of duty conform to a professional standard of care. (b) There was a dereliction or breach of
the duty on the part of the psychologist. (c) The client suffered injury or harm as a
result of this dereliction or breach. (d) The psychologist's dereliction or breach of
duty was the direct or proximate cause of the person's harm or injury. Negligence
(answer C) is a possible cause of a breach of duty (answer D) but it's not required
for a claim of malpractice because a breach of duty can be due other factors.
While developing a new test of job knowledge, a test B
developer administers the test items to a sample of 50
recently hired employees. Based on the results, he EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity - Criterion-Related Validity-10 Answer B is correct. To
eliminates a few items and changes several other items to identify the correct answer to this question, you have to recognize that the test
increase the test's reliability and validity. When he developer cross-validated the test when she administered it to a new sample and
readministers the test along with a measure of job know that validity coefficients tend to be lower for the cross-validation sample than
performance to the same sample, he obtains a criterion- for the original sample. This is referred to as "shrinkage," and it occurs because all
related validity coefficient of .65. If he then administers the the chance factors that contributed to the correlation between the job knowledge
test and measure of job performance to a different sample test (predictor) and measure of job performance (criterion) for the sample that was
of 50 recently hired employees, he's most likely to obtain a used to develop the test are not likely to be present in the cross-validation sample.
validity coefficient that is:
A. greater than .65.
B. less than .65.
C. greater or less than .65.
D. equal to .65.
Opioid-induced respiratory depression is due to the effects B
of opiates on receptors in the:
A. substantia nigra. EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions - Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical
B. medulla. Forebrain Structures-03 Answer B is correct. The medulla controls respiration and
C. striatum. other vital autonomic functions. Opioids and opioid agonists produce respiratory
D. thalamus. depression by reducing the responsiveness of the medulla's respiratory center to
carbon dioxide.
The risk for developing agranulocytosis, a potentially fatal D
blood disorder, is greatest for which of the following
antipsychotic drugs? EPPP-F1-PHY-Psychopharmacology - Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-22
A. chlorpromazine Answer D is correct. Agranulocytosis is a potential side effect of several
B. fluphenazine antipsychotics but most often occurs with clozapine use. See, e.g., W. Austin and M.
C. risperidone A. Boyd, Psychiatric and mental health nursing for Canadian practice (2nd ed.),
D. clozapine Philadelphia, Wolters Kluwer/Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2010.
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, PrepJet EPPP Practice Exams 5, 6 & 7 - Exam Questions & Verified Answers
Which of the following is most useful for identifying the D
behavioral anchors that are incorporated into behaviorally
anchored rating scales (BARS)? EPPP-F1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-03 Answer D is correct.
A. needs analysis Knowing that behavioral anchors are descriptions of specific job behaviors that
B. organizational analysis represent good, average, and poor performance would have helped you identify the
C. paired comparison technique critical incident technique as being most useful for developing BARS. Note that,
D. critical incident technique while the critical incident technique is ordinarily used to identify extreme behaviors
(i.e., very successful and very unsuccessful behaviors), the terms "critical incident"
and "critical incident technique" are sometimes used more generally to refer to
descriptions of specific job-related behaviors.
When a predictor included in a multiple regression B
equation has a negative beta weight, this means that:
A. The predictor has a negative correlation with the other EPPP-F1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-07 Answer B is correct. Beta weights
predictors. are standardized regression coefficients, and a predictor's beta weight indicates the
B. The predictor has a negative correlation with the strength of the relationship between the predictor and the criterion. When a
criterion. predictor's beta weight is positive, this means there's a positive relationship
C. The predictor has a statistically significant relationship between the predictor and criterion (i.e., as scores on the predictor increase, scores
with the criterion. on the criterion increase). Conversely, when the beta weight is negative, this means
D. The predictor does not have a statistically significant there's a negative relationship between the predictor and criterion (i.e., as scores on
relationship with the criterion. the predictor increase, scores on the criterion decrease).
A utility analysis of an employee selection program will C
provide information on which of the following?
A. the criterion-related validity of a new selection technique EPPP-F1-ORG-Employee Selection - Evaluation of Techniques-07 Answer C is
B. the risk for adverse impact when using a new selection correct. Utility analysis is used to obtain information on the monetary value (return
technique on investment) of a selection test, training program, or other employment practice.
C. the monetary costs and benefits of using a new
selection technique
D. the reactions of job applicants to a new selection
technique
Esketamine, a nasal spray version of ketamine, has been B
found to be an effective treatment for:
A. treatment-resistant mania. EPPP-F1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders--25 Answer B is correct. Of the
B. treatment-resistant depression. disorders listed in the answers, ketamine has been found to be an effective
C. tobacco-use disorder. treatment only for treatment-resistant depression (TRD). Definitions of TRD vary,
D. opioid use disorder. but it is often defined as involving an inadequate response to at least two
antidepressants from different classes.
A study conducted by Kaczynski, Lindahl, Malik, and B
Laurenceau (2006) confirmed their hypothesis that the
relationship between marital conflict and child adjustment EPPP-F1-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-02 Answer B is correct. Mediator
was due to the impact of marital conflict on parenting style variables are also known as intervening variables and explain the relationship
which, in turn, impacted child adjustment. In this situation, between two other variables. Kaczynski et al. found that the relationship between
parenting style is a(n) ________ variable. marital conflict and child adjustment was explained (mediated) by parenting style. In
A. moderator others, they found that parenting style was a mediating variable. [K. J. Kaczynski, K.
B. mediator M. Lindahl, N. M. Malik, and J. Laurenceau, Marital conflict, maternal and paternal
C. extraneous parenting, and child adjustment: A test of mediation and moderation, Journal of
D. independent Family Psychology, 20, 199-208, 2006.]
In a positively skewed distribution of scores, the A
__________ is the lowest score and the __________ is
the highest score. EPPP-F1-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-01 Answer A is correct. Skewed
A. mode; mean distributions are asymmetrical with most scores "piled up" in one tail of the
B. mean; mode distribution and a few scores in the other tail: In a positively skewed distribution, the
C. median; mean few scores are in the positive tail (the high end of the distribution); in a negatively
D. mean; median skewed distribution, the few scores are in the negative tail (the low end of the
distribution) - i.e., the "tail tells the tale." In both distributions, the mean, median,
and mode do not equal the same value: Instead, the mean is in the tail with the few
scores, the median is in the middle, and the mode is in the tail containing most of
the scores. Consequently, in a positively skewed distribution, the mean is the
highest score, the median is the middle score, and the mode is the lowest score.
Conversely, in a negatively skewed distribution, the mean is the lowest score, the
median is the middle score, and the mode is the highest score.
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, PrepJet EPPP Practice Exams 5, 6 & 7 - Exam Questions & Verified Answers
In the context of classical conditioning, blocking occurs D
when:
A. a previously conditioned CS is repeatedly presented EPPP-F1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-01 Answer D is correct. Blocking occurs when
with a new US. a new neutral stimulus is simultaneously presented with a previously conditioned
B. a previously conditioned CS is repeatedly presented stimulus (CS) before presenting the unconditioned stimulus (US). In this situation,
after the US. the new neutral stimulus will not become a conditioned stimulus and will not elicit a
C. a new neutral stimulus and a previously conditioned CS conditioned response when presented alone. This occurs because classical
are presented together after presentation of the US. conditioning of the first neutral (conditioned) stimulus blocks classical conditioning
D. a new neutral stimulus and a previously conditioned CS of the second neutral stimulus, apparently because the second neutral stimulus
are presented together before presentation of the US. does not provide any new information about the occurrence of the unconditioned
stimulus.
You work at a community health center that employs three A
licensed psychologists, several physicians, and a marriage
and family therapist. You overhear two members of the EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-02 Answer A is
clerical staff complaining about the behavior of one of the correct. This answer is most consistent with Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of the APA
licensed psychologists, and it sounds like her behavior Ethics Code and Standards II.43 and II.44 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which
violates ethical guidelines. Assuming that client require psychologists to take action when they believe another psychologist has
confidentiality is not an issue and that you are not legally acted unethically as long as doing so does not violate client confidentiality.
required to report the psychologist's behavior to Consequently, of the answers given, this is the best one.
appropriate authorities, your best course of action is to:
A. discuss the possible ethical violation with the
psychologist.
B. advise the staff members of their options.
C. do nothing unless you have reason to believe the
psychologist will repeat the behavior in the future.
D. do nothing unless you have reason to believe the
psychologist's behavior has caused substantial harm.
When a test developer uses varimax to rotate the factors B
identified in a factor analysis, the rotated factors are
__________, which means that they're uncorrelated: EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity - Content and Construct Validity-04 Answer B is correct.
A. oblique. To identify the correct answer to this question, you do NOT need to be familiar with
B. orthogonal. varimax rotation: You just need to know that, in the context of factor analysis,
C. heterogeneous. orthogonal factors are uncorrelated while oblique factors are correlated. (Varimax is
D. homogeneous. one of several methods of factor rotation that produces orthogonal factors.)
To calculate the standard error of measurement for a newly D
developed test, you need which of the following?
A. the test's mean and reliability coefficient EPPP-F1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-02 Answer D is correct. A test's
B. the test's standard deviation and the sample size standard error of measurement is used to construct a confidence interval around an
C. the test's standard deviation and validity coefficient examinee's obtained score. It's calculated by multiplying the test's standard
D. the test's standard deviation and reliability coefficient deviation times the square root of 1 minus its reliability coefficient.
A researcher conducts a study to determine if there are D
gender differences in acceptance as a graduate student
into the six largest departments at a university. To analyze EPPP-F1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-10 Answer D is correct. The first and
the data she collects in this study, the researcher will use second steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are identifying the study's
which of the following? independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the
A. one-way ANOVA dependent variable. This study has two variables - gender and department - and
B. two-way ANOVA gender can be viewed as the independent variable and department as the
C. single-sample chi-square test dependent variable. The dependent variable - department - is a nominal variable.
D. multiple-sample chi-square test The chi-square test is the appropriate test for analyzing nominal data and, when a
study has two or more variables, the multiple-sample chi-square test is used. Keep
in mind that, for the chi-square test, you count the total number of variables
regardless of whether they're independent or dependent variables: The multiple-
sample chi-square test is used when the study has two or more variables, and the
single-sample chi-square test is used when a study is a descriptive study and has
only one variable.
Conduction aphasia is characterized by: C
A. impaired comprehension, fluent aphasia, anomia, and
impaired repetition. EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions - Cerebral Cortex-07 Answer C is correct.
B. impaired comprehension, nonfluent aphasia, anomia, Conduction aphasia is characterized by relatively intact comprehension with fluent
and impaired repetition. speech that contains many errors, anomia, and impaired repetition. It's caused by
C. relatively intact comprehension, fluent aphasia, anomia, damage to the arcuate fasciculus, which connects Wernicke's area to Broca's area.
and impaired repetition.
D. relatively intact comprehension, nonfluent aphasia,
anomia, and unimpaired repetition.
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, PrepJet EPPP Practice Exams 5, 6 & 7 - Exam Questions & Verified Answers
As described by Baddeley (2000), the __________ is D
responsible for integrating information in working memory
with information in long-term memory. EPPP-F1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-13 Answer D is correct. A. D. Baddeley's
A. phonological loop multi-component model of working memory describes it as consisting of a central
B. sensory register executive and three subcomponents - the phonological loop, visuo-spatial
C. visuo-spatial sketchpad sketchpad, and episodic buffer. The episodic buffer is a temporary storage system
D. episodic buffer that's responsible for combining new verbal and visual information from the
phonological loop and visuo-spatial sketchpad and integrating that information with
information that's already stored in long-term memory (The episodic buffer: A new
component of working memory, Trends in Cognitive Science, 4, 417-423, 2000).
As described by Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory, a B
parent's workplace, the child's extended family, and the
mass media are part of the child's: EPPP-F1-LIF-Early Influences on Development - Nature vs. Nurture-02 Answer B is
A. mesosystem. correct. Ecological theory distinguishes between five environmental systems that
B. exosystem. impact a child's development: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem,
C. microsystem. macrosystem, and chronosystem. The exosystem consists of elements in the
D. macrosystem. environment that the child is not in direct contact with but affect the child's
immediate environment. These elements include the parents' places of work, the
extended family, neighbors, mass media, and community health services.
Which of the following is an example of a morpheme? C
A. ba-ba
B. sh EPPP-F1-LIF-Language Development-08 Answer C is correct. Morphemes are the
C. do smallest units of language that have meaning and cannot be broken down into
D. d smaller parts. They include free morphemes that can stand alone as a word (e.g.,
do, dog) and bound morphemes that must be combined with at least one other
morpheme to form a word (e.g., ing, er). Phonemes (e.g., sh, d) are the smallest
units of sound that can be understood in a language.
An accumulation of neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary C
tangles in the entorhinal cortex, hippocampus, and
amygdala is associated with which of the following? EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-27 Answer C is correct. Neurocognitive
A. neurocognitive disorder due to HIV infection disorder due to Alzheimer's disease has been linked to a progressive accumulation
B. neurocognitive disorder due to Parkinson's disease of extracellular amyloid-predominant neuritic plaques and intracellular tau-
C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease predominant neurofibrillary tangles in the areas of the brain listed in this question.
D. frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder
One of the questions included in a survey asks employees B
to rate the degree to which the processes used by the
company to make decisions about employee raises, EPPP-F1-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-25 Answer B is correct. A
bonuses, and promotions are fair. This question assesses distinction is made between three types of organizational justice: distributive,
employees' perceptions about which of the following? procedural, and interactional. Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the
A. distributive justice procedures and processes used to determine outcomes.
B. procedural justice
C. normative justice
D. interactional justice
When a predictor has a reliability coefficient of .64, you can C
conclude that its criterion-related validity coefficient can be
no larger than: EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity - Criterion-Related Validity-09 Answer C is correct. To
A. .36. identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that a predictor's
B. .64. criterion-related validity coefficient can be no larger than the square root of its
C. .80. reliability coefficient. When the predictor's reliability coefficient is .64, this means it's
D. 1.0. validity coefficient can be no larger than the square root of .64, which is .80. Note
that, on the EPPP, if you have to determine the square root of a number, it will be an
"easy" number like .81, .64, or .49. You do NOT have to know how to calculate a
square root.
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