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Southern Nevada Health District (Snhd) – Ems Emt Basic Level Protocols | Exam Questions And Correct Answers | Latest 2026/2027

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Voorbeeld 4 van de 51 pagina's

Southern Nevada Health District (Snhd) – Ems Emt Basic Level Protocols | Exam Questions And Correct Answers | Latest 2026/2027

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SNHD EMT




SOUTHERN NEVADA HEALTH DISTRICT (SNHD) – EMS EMT BASIC
LEVEL PROTOCOLS | EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS |
LATEST 2026/2027




SOUTHERN NEVADA HEALTH DISTRICT
Clark County EMS System: Emergency Medical Care Protocols
EMT




1. Which office of the Southern Nevada Health District is responsible for the
Clark County EMS Emergency Medical Care Protocols?
A. Office of Emergency Medical Services & Trauma System (OEMSTS)
B. Office of Epidemiology and Disease Surveillance
C. Division of Environmental Health
D. Office of Vital Records and Statistics
ANSWER : A. Office of Emergency Medical Services & Trauma System
(OEMSTS). Explanation: The manual is published by the OEMSTS, and
protocol questions are directed to that office.




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, SNHD EMT


2. What is the stated goal of the Clark County EMS protocol manual?
A. To replace online medical consultation
B. To expand the scope of practice of every licensed attendant
C. To set ambulance billing rates
D. To standardize prehospital patient care in Clark County
ANSWER : D. To standardize prehospital patient care in Clark County.
Explanation: The Foreword states the goal is to standardize prehospital
patient care across Clark County.
3. According to the Foreword, nothing in the protocols may be construed to:
A. require every patient to be transported
B. limit the District Health Officer's authority to revise protocols
C. expand an attendant's scope of practice beyond the Clark County EMS
Regulations and the protocols
D. prevent contact with online medical control
ANSWER : C. expand an attendant's scope of practice beyond the Clark
County EMS Regulations and the protocols. Explanation: Scope of practice
is defined by the Clark County EMS Regulations and the protocols (Appendix
C).
4. How should patient care be delivered in relation to transport?
A. All care must be completed on scene before the ambulance moves
B. Care should be rendered while en route to the definitive treatment facility
C. Care is delayed until telemetry contact is made
D. Transport waits until an IV has been established
ANSWER : B. Care should be rendered while en route to the definitive
treatment facility. Explanation: Nothing in the protocols is meant to delay
rapid transport to a receiving facility.
5. Which protocols must be followed in the specific sequence noted?
A. Operations protocols
B. Formulary entries
C. General Assessment protocols
D. Procedures protocols
ANSWER : C. General Assessment protocols. Explanation: For all other
treatment protocols the algorithm defines the usual care, but the General
Assessment protocols are to be followed in sequence.




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, SNHD EMT


6. Who may add to or revise the protocols?
A. Any licensed attendant with supervisor approval
B. The receiving hospital's emergency department
C. The telemetry physician on duty
D. The District Health Officer, on recommendation of the Medical Advisory
Board
ANSWER : D. The District Health Officer, on recommendation of the
Medical Advisory Board. Explanation: Protocol changes come from the
District Health Officer upon recommendation by the Medical Advisory Board
(MAB).
7. Telephone contact with online medical control is allowed only when:
A. the call is routed through a recorded phone patch via the FAO at 702-
382-9007
B. radio contact has been attempted once
C. the patient is in cardiac arrest
D. the receiving hospital requests it
ANSWER : A. the call is routed through a recorded phone patch via the FAO
at 702-382-9007. Explanation: Contact should be made by radio; phone is
acceptable only through the recorded FAO patch.
8. A provider believes a physician's order would endanger the patient. What
must the provider do immediately?
A. Carry out the order and document the concern later
B. Notify the telemetry physician of the reason the order cannot be carried
out
C. Wait until hospital arrival to discuss it
D. Ask dispatch for a supervisor's decision
ANSWER : B. Notify the telemetry physician of the reason the order cannot
be carried out. Explanation: The provider also documents what was ordered,
the time, and the reason on the PCR, and notifies the OEMSTS.




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, SNHD EMT


9. Which of the following meets the protocol definition of a patient?
A. A person identified by an informed second or third party caller as
requiring evaluation for potential illness or injury
B. Only a person who agrees to ambulance transport
C. Only a person with an obvious visible injury
D. Only a person with abnormal vital signs
ANSWER : A. A person identified by an informed second or third party
caller as requiring evaluation for potential illness or injury. Explanation: A
patient may have a complaint or mechanism suggestive of illness or injury,
obvious evidence of illness or injury, or be identified by an informed caller.
10. The pediatric treatment protocols are intended for children who:
A. are under 5 years of age
B. have not yet experienced puberty
C. weigh less than 25 kg
D. are being transported without a parent
ANSWER : B. have not yet experienced puberty. Explanation: Signs of
puberty include chest or underarm hair in males and any breast development
in females.
11. The Pediatric Patient Destination protocol is used for patients younger than:
A. 12 years
B. 16 years
C. 14 years
D. 18 years
ANSWER : D. 18 years. Explanation: For patients under 18 years old, use
the Pediatric Patient Destination protocol.
12. In the abbreviation AMPLE, the letter "L" stands for:
A. Level of consciousness
B. Location of pain
C. Last meal eaten
D. Length of symptoms
ANSWER : C. Last meal eaten. Explanation: AMPLE stands for Allergies;
Medications; Prior history; Last meal eaten; Events leading up to the injury or
illness.




Page 4 of 51

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