HESI LPN Exit Examination Practice
Exam 100 Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant
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1. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is assigned to a team of unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP) on a medical-surgical unit. Which task should the
LPN delegate to the UAP?
A) Administering a tube feeding to a stable client
B) Measuring the blood pressure of a client who is 2 hours post-cardiac
catheterization
C) Assessing the surgical incision of a post-operative client
D) Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer
Answer: B
Rationale: UAP can perform routine vital signs on stable clients. Measuring
blood pressure is within their scope. Tube feedings, assessments, and
teaching require licensed nursing judgment and are not delegable to UAP.
2. A client with a new colostomy is being discharged. Which statement by the
client indicates a correct understanding of dietary management?
A) "I will avoid all high-fiber foods permanently."
B) "I will introduce new foods one at a time to see how they affect my output."
C) "I can never eat popcorn or nuts again."
,D) "I will drink very little fluid to keep my stool formed."
Answer: B
Rationale: Clients with a new colostomy should introduce foods gradually to
identify which ones cause gas, odor, or changes in consistency. Fluid intake
should be adequate, and many foods can be tolerated over time.
3. A client with heart failure reports shortness of breath when walking to the
bathroom. The nurse notes an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A) Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
B) Notify the healthcare provider
C) Document the finding as expected for heart failure
D) Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees
Answer: A
Rationale: The priority is to correct hypoxemia by applying oxygen. An SpO2
of 88% indicates significant oxygen desaturation requiring immediate
intervention. After applying oxygen, the nurse should notify the provider.
4. An LPN is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for
warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for
further teaching?
A) "I will use an electric razor for shaving."
B) "I will eat the same amount of green leafy vegetables each week."
C) "I will take ibuprofen for my occasional headaches."
D) "I will tell my dentist that I take this medication."
Answer: C
,Rationale: Ibuprofen and other NSAIDs increase bleeding risk when taken
with warfarin. Clients should avoid NSAIDs and use acetaminophen for pain
or headache after consulting the provider.
5. A client is receiving a continuous enteral tube feeding. The nurse checks
the residual volume and finds 250 mL. What is the most appropriate action?
A) Discard the residual and continue the feeding
B) Hold the feeding and notify the healthcare provider
C) Return the residual and continue the feeding at the same rate
D) Flush the tube with 100 mL of water and resume feeding
Answer: C
Rationale: Residual volumes of 250-500 mL are generally considered
acceptable unless the client has other signs of intolerance. The residual
should be returned to prevent electrolyte loss, and feeding should continue.
6. A client falls while attempting to get out of bed unassisted. What is the
nurse's first action?
A) Assess the client for injury
B) Notify the healthcare provider
C) Complete an incident report
D) Assist the client back to bed
Answer: A
Rationale: The priority after a fall is to assess the client for injury (pain,
bleeding, neurological changes, fractures). After assessment and
stabilization, the nurse should assist the client, notify the provider, and
complete an incident report.
, 7. A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL and is
conscious but confused. Which intervention should the nurse implement
first?
A) Administer glucagon intramuscularly
B) Give 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate orally
C) Administer insulin subcutaneously
D) Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
Answer: B
Rationale: The client is conscious and able to swallow, so oral glucose is the
safest and fastest intervention. Glucagon is reserved for unconscious clients
or those unable to swallow. Rechecking glucose occurs after treatment.
8. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and back pain.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Slow the transfusion rate
B) Administer acetaminophen
C) Stop the transfusion immediately
D) Obtain a urine specimen
Answer: C
Rationale: Chills, fever, and back pain are classic signs of a hemolytic
transfusion reaction. The nurse should stop the transfusion immediately,
maintain IV access with normal saline, and notify the provider.
9. The LPN is preparing to delegate morning care for four assigned clients.
Which client should the LPN retain rather than assign to the unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP)?
A) A 72-year-old client with a stage II pressure injury requiring dressing
reinforcement
Exam 100 Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant
Download Pdf
1. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is assigned to a team of unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP) on a medical-surgical unit. Which task should the
LPN delegate to the UAP?
A) Administering a tube feeding to a stable client
B) Measuring the blood pressure of a client who is 2 hours post-cardiac
catheterization
C) Assessing the surgical incision of a post-operative client
D) Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer
Answer: B
Rationale: UAP can perform routine vital signs on stable clients. Measuring
blood pressure is within their scope. Tube feedings, assessments, and
teaching require licensed nursing judgment and are not delegable to UAP.
2. A client with a new colostomy is being discharged. Which statement by the
client indicates a correct understanding of dietary management?
A) "I will avoid all high-fiber foods permanently."
B) "I will introduce new foods one at a time to see how they affect my output."
C) "I can never eat popcorn or nuts again."
,D) "I will drink very little fluid to keep my stool formed."
Answer: B
Rationale: Clients with a new colostomy should introduce foods gradually to
identify which ones cause gas, odor, or changes in consistency. Fluid intake
should be adequate, and many foods can be tolerated over time.
3. A client with heart failure reports shortness of breath when walking to the
bathroom. The nurse notes an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A) Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
B) Notify the healthcare provider
C) Document the finding as expected for heart failure
D) Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees
Answer: A
Rationale: The priority is to correct hypoxemia by applying oxygen. An SpO2
of 88% indicates significant oxygen desaturation requiring immediate
intervention. After applying oxygen, the nurse should notify the provider.
4. An LPN is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for
warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for
further teaching?
A) "I will use an electric razor for shaving."
B) "I will eat the same amount of green leafy vegetables each week."
C) "I will take ibuprofen for my occasional headaches."
D) "I will tell my dentist that I take this medication."
Answer: C
,Rationale: Ibuprofen and other NSAIDs increase bleeding risk when taken
with warfarin. Clients should avoid NSAIDs and use acetaminophen for pain
or headache after consulting the provider.
5. A client is receiving a continuous enteral tube feeding. The nurse checks
the residual volume and finds 250 mL. What is the most appropriate action?
A) Discard the residual and continue the feeding
B) Hold the feeding and notify the healthcare provider
C) Return the residual and continue the feeding at the same rate
D) Flush the tube with 100 mL of water and resume feeding
Answer: C
Rationale: Residual volumes of 250-500 mL are generally considered
acceptable unless the client has other signs of intolerance. The residual
should be returned to prevent electrolyte loss, and feeding should continue.
6. A client falls while attempting to get out of bed unassisted. What is the
nurse's first action?
A) Assess the client for injury
B) Notify the healthcare provider
C) Complete an incident report
D) Assist the client back to bed
Answer: A
Rationale: The priority after a fall is to assess the client for injury (pain,
bleeding, neurological changes, fractures). After assessment and
stabilization, the nurse should assist the client, notify the provider, and
complete an incident report.
, 7. A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL and is
conscious but confused. Which intervention should the nurse implement
first?
A) Administer glucagon intramuscularly
B) Give 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate orally
C) Administer insulin subcutaneously
D) Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
Answer: B
Rationale: The client is conscious and able to swallow, so oral glucose is the
safest and fastest intervention. Glucagon is reserved for unconscious clients
or those unable to swallow. Rechecking glucose occurs after treatment.
8. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and back pain.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Slow the transfusion rate
B) Administer acetaminophen
C) Stop the transfusion immediately
D) Obtain a urine specimen
Answer: C
Rationale: Chills, fever, and back pain are classic signs of a hemolytic
transfusion reaction. The nurse should stop the transfusion immediately,
maintain IV access with normal saline, and notify the provider.
9. The LPN is preparing to delegate morning care for four assigned clients.
Which client should the LPN retain rather than assign to the unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP)?
A) A 72-year-old client with a stage II pressure injury requiring dressing
reinforcement
