,NRNP 6551 Primary Care of Women Exam Prep —
Comprehensive Review + Practice MCQs — Walden
University 2025/2026
1. A 34-year-old woman presents for an annual well-woman visit. She has no complaints and reports regular
menstrual cycles. According to the course emphasis on health promotion, what is the most appropriate focus
for this 15- to 30-minute appointment?
A. Performing a comprehensive head-to-toe physical examination
B. Screening for commonly seen gynecological disorders and promoting wellness
C. Referring her to a specialist for routine care
D. Discussing only her contraceptive options
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Walden's NURS 6551 course description emphasizes screening for commonly seen gynecological
disorders and teaching/promoting wellness within the constraints of a typical primary care appointment. A
comprehensive head-to-toe exam is not typically feasible or necessary in a routine well-woman visit. Referral
to a specialist is not the primary care approach. Limiting discussion to contraception ignores broader wellness
promotion.
2. During a 25-year-old woman's initial prenatal visit, she reports her last normal menstrual period began on
March 10. Using Naegele's rule, what is her estimated date of delivery?
A. December 10
B. December 17
C. December 24
D. December 3
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's rule estimates the due date by subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days to the first day of
the last normal menstrual period. March 10 minus 3 months = December 10; December 10 plus 7 days =
December 17. This calculation assumes a 28-day cycle.
3. A 28-year-old woman presents with a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor. She reports no
itching or burning. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Candidiasis
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Bacterial vaginosis
D. Atrophic vaginitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bacterial vaginosis is characterized by thin, grayish-white discharge with a fishy odor and minimal
inflammation (typically no itching or burning). Candidiasis presents with thick, white discharge and itching.
Trichomoniasis causes frothy, yellow-green discharge with itching. Atrophic vaginitis occurs in postmenopausal
women due to estrogen deficiency.
4. A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following is a first-line treatment?
A. Fluconazole 150 mg PO single dose
B. Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID for 7 days
C. Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
D. Penicillin G benzathine IM single dose
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID for 7 days is a first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis. Fluconazole
is used for candidiasis. Doxycycline is used for chlamydia and other infections, not as first-line BV treatment.
Penicillin G benzathine is treatment for syphilis.
5. A 26-year-old woman presents with painful genital ulcers and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. She reports
the lesions appeared as grouped vesicles that ulcerated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Syphilis
B. Genital herpes (HSV-2)
C. Chancroid
D. Lymphogranuloma venereum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Painful genital ulcers with tender inguinal lymphadenopathy, preceded by grouped vesicles, are
characteristic of primary genital herpes infection. Syphilis presents with a painless chancre. Chancroid causes
painful ulcers but is less common and typically has ragged edges. Lymphogranuloma venereum presents with a
small painless papule that ulcerates.
6. A 25-year-old woman with a history of genital herpes asks about transmission. Which statement is most
accurate?
A. "You can only transmit the virus when you have visible sores."
B. "The virus can be transmitted even when you have no symptoms."
Comprehensive Review + Practice MCQs — Walden
University 2025/2026
1. A 34-year-old woman presents for an annual well-woman visit. She has no complaints and reports regular
menstrual cycles. According to the course emphasis on health promotion, what is the most appropriate focus
for this 15- to 30-minute appointment?
A. Performing a comprehensive head-to-toe physical examination
B. Screening for commonly seen gynecological disorders and promoting wellness
C. Referring her to a specialist for routine care
D. Discussing only her contraceptive options
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Walden's NURS 6551 course description emphasizes screening for commonly seen gynecological
disorders and teaching/promoting wellness within the constraints of a typical primary care appointment. A
comprehensive head-to-toe exam is not typically feasible or necessary in a routine well-woman visit. Referral
to a specialist is not the primary care approach. Limiting discussion to contraception ignores broader wellness
promotion.
2. During a 25-year-old woman's initial prenatal visit, she reports her last normal menstrual period began on
March 10. Using Naegele's rule, what is her estimated date of delivery?
A. December 10
B. December 17
C. December 24
D. December 3
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's rule estimates the due date by subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days to the first day of
the last normal menstrual period. March 10 minus 3 months = December 10; December 10 plus 7 days =
December 17. This calculation assumes a 28-day cycle.
3. A 28-year-old woman presents with a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor. She reports no
itching or burning. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Candidiasis
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Bacterial vaginosis
D. Atrophic vaginitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bacterial vaginosis is characterized by thin, grayish-white discharge with a fishy odor and minimal
inflammation (typically no itching or burning). Candidiasis presents with thick, white discharge and itching.
Trichomoniasis causes frothy, yellow-green discharge with itching. Atrophic vaginitis occurs in postmenopausal
women due to estrogen deficiency.
4. A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following is a first-line treatment?
A. Fluconazole 150 mg PO single dose
B. Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID for 7 days
C. Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
D. Penicillin G benzathine IM single dose
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID for 7 days is a first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis. Fluconazole
is used for candidiasis. Doxycycline is used for chlamydia and other infections, not as first-line BV treatment.
Penicillin G benzathine is treatment for syphilis.
5. A 26-year-old woman presents with painful genital ulcers and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. She reports
the lesions appeared as grouped vesicles that ulcerated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Syphilis
B. Genital herpes (HSV-2)
C. Chancroid
D. Lymphogranuloma venereum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Painful genital ulcers with tender inguinal lymphadenopathy, preceded by grouped vesicles, are
characteristic of primary genital herpes infection. Syphilis presents with a painless chancre. Chancroid causes
painful ulcers but is less common and typically has ragged edges. Lymphogranuloma venereum presents with a
small painless papule that ulcerates.
6. A 25-year-old woman with a history of genital herpes asks about transmission. Which statement is most
accurate?
A. "You can only transmit the virus when you have visible sores."
B. "The virus can be transmitted even when you have no symptoms."
