RN HESI Pharmacology V2 Real Exam | A Masterpiece
Covering Major and Crucial Concepts of the Subject ||
Questions 1–200 | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+
1. A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a client with a
postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional
drug allergy before administering this prescription?
A. Sulfonamides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Macrolides
D. Penicillins
ANS: D
Explanation: Cephalexin is a cephalosporin, which is structurally related to penicillins.
Clients allergic to penicillins may have a cross-sensitivity to cephalosporins. Assessing for
penicillin allergy is the priority before administration. Options A, B, and C are not
associated with cross-reactivity with cephalosporins.
2. A client receiving albuterol (Proventil) tablets reports nausea every evening with her 9
p.m. dose. What action should the nurse take to alleviate this side effect?
A. Change the dose to every other day
B. Administer the dose on an empty stomach
1
, C. Administer the dose with a snack
D. Hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider
ANS: C
Explanation: Administering albuterol with food can help alleviate gastrointestinal side
effects such as nausea. Option A is incorrect because changing the dosing schedule
requires a provider's order. Option B may worsen nausea. Option D is unnecessary
because nausea is a common, expected side effect.
3. A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which assessment should the nurse
prioritize before administration?
A. Blood glucose level
B. Renal function tests
C. Liver enzymes
D. Cardiac enzymes
ANS: B
Explanation: Metformin is contraindicated in clients with renal impairment because it
can accumulate and cause lactic acidosis. Renal function should be assessed before
administration. While blood glucose (option A) is important, renal function is the priority
safety assessment for metformin.
2
,4. The nurse is reviewing the use of a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with a client
in the immediate postoperative period. What assessment has the highest priority before
initiating the PCA pump?
A. The client's pain level on a 0-10 scale
B. The rate and depth of the client's respirations
C. The client's history of opioid use
D. The client's ability to press the PCA button
ANS: B
Explanation: Respiratory depression is the most life-threatening adverse effect of
opioid PCA. Assessing respiratory rate and depth before initiation establishes a baseline
and ensures the client can safely receive opioids. Pain level (A) is important but not the
priority over airway and breathing.
5. In explaining the benefits of the combination anti-infective drug TMP-SMZ (Bactrim) to a
client receiving it for a urinary tract infection, what rationale should the nurse provide?
A. The combination is less expensive than single agents
B. The combination has fewer side effects
C. The combination works faster than a single drug
D. The two drugs work together to reduce resistance of the bacterial infection
ANS: D
Explanation: TMP-SMZ is a synergistic combination of two antibiotics that work
3
, together to inhibit sequential steps in bacterial folate synthesis. This synergy reduces the
likelihood of bacterial resistance. Options A, B, and C are not the primary rationale for
the combination.
6. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?
A. PT
B. INR
C. aPTT
D. Platelet count
ANS: B
Explanation: INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the standard laboratory test used
to monitor warfarin therapy. The therapeutic range for most indications is 2-3. PT (A) is
also prolonged but INR is the standardized measure. aPTT (C) monitors heparin therapy.
Platelet count (D) is not the primary monitoring parameter for warfarin.
7. A female client with rheumatoid arthritis takes ibuprofen (Motrin) and is prescribed
misoprostol (Cytotec) to prevent gastrointestinal bleeding. Which information is most
important for the nurse to include in client teaching?
A. Use contraception during intercourse
B. Take the medication on an empty stomach
C. Avoid dairy products
4
Covering Major and Crucial Concepts of the Subject ||
Questions 1–200 | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+
1. A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a client with a
postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional
drug allergy before administering this prescription?
A. Sulfonamides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Macrolides
D. Penicillins
ANS: D
Explanation: Cephalexin is a cephalosporin, which is structurally related to penicillins.
Clients allergic to penicillins may have a cross-sensitivity to cephalosporins. Assessing for
penicillin allergy is the priority before administration. Options A, B, and C are not
associated with cross-reactivity with cephalosporins.
2. A client receiving albuterol (Proventil) tablets reports nausea every evening with her 9
p.m. dose. What action should the nurse take to alleviate this side effect?
A. Change the dose to every other day
B. Administer the dose on an empty stomach
1
, C. Administer the dose with a snack
D. Hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider
ANS: C
Explanation: Administering albuterol with food can help alleviate gastrointestinal side
effects such as nausea. Option A is incorrect because changing the dosing schedule
requires a provider's order. Option B may worsen nausea. Option D is unnecessary
because nausea is a common, expected side effect.
3. A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which assessment should the nurse
prioritize before administration?
A. Blood glucose level
B. Renal function tests
C. Liver enzymes
D. Cardiac enzymes
ANS: B
Explanation: Metformin is contraindicated in clients with renal impairment because it
can accumulate and cause lactic acidosis. Renal function should be assessed before
administration. While blood glucose (option A) is important, renal function is the priority
safety assessment for metformin.
2
,4. The nurse is reviewing the use of a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with a client
in the immediate postoperative period. What assessment has the highest priority before
initiating the PCA pump?
A. The client's pain level on a 0-10 scale
B. The rate and depth of the client's respirations
C. The client's history of opioid use
D. The client's ability to press the PCA button
ANS: B
Explanation: Respiratory depression is the most life-threatening adverse effect of
opioid PCA. Assessing respiratory rate and depth before initiation establishes a baseline
and ensures the client can safely receive opioids. Pain level (A) is important but not the
priority over airway and breathing.
5. In explaining the benefits of the combination anti-infective drug TMP-SMZ (Bactrim) to a
client receiving it for a urinary tract infection, what rationale should the nurse provide?
A. The combination is less expensive than single agents
B. The combination has fewer side effects
C. The combination works faster than a single drug
D. The two drugs work together to reduce resistance of the bacterial infection
ANS: D
Explanation: TMP-SMZ is a synergistic combination of two antibiotics that work
3
, together to inhibit sequential steps in bacterial folate synthesis. This synergy reduces the
likelihood of bacterial resistance. Options A, B, and C are not the primary rationale for
the combination.
6. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?
A. PT
B. INR
C. aPTT
D. Platelet count
ANS: B
Explanation: INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the standard laboratory test used
to monitor warfarin therapy. The therapeutic range for most indications is 2-3. PT (A) is
also prolonged but INR is the standardized measure. aPTT (C) monitors heparin therapy.
Platelet count (D) is not the primary monitoring parameter for warfarin.
7. A female client with rheumatoid arthritis takes ibuprofen (Motrin) and is prescribed
misoprostol (Cytotec) to prevent gastrointestinal bleeding. Which information is most
important for the nurse to include in client teaching?
A. Use contraception during intercourse
B. Take the medication on an empty stomach
C. Avoid dairy products
4
