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Exam (elaborations)

Primary Professional Military Education Block 2-6 Test Bank

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2The Culture of the Navy (Block 2) Enlisted Professionalism 2.1.1Military Formations Q1: Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits? A: Precision and automatic response Q2: Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner? A: From most junior to senior Q3: Which of the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection? A: To use as a tool to punish your Sailors Q4: As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the following occasions? A: Awards ceremony Q5: During the Revolutionary War, ______________ developed a set of standardized drills for General George Washington and the Continental Army. A: Baron von Steuben Q6:Which event would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man the rails? A: Leaving the shipyards after 120 days Q7:Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”? A: Baron von Steuben Q8:What type of command is the first word in “Parade Rest”? A: Preparatory Q9: At the beginning of the Revolutionary War, ______________ was the leaders' primary tool to achieve discipline in ranks. A: fear Q10: What do you call the extreme right or left of an element? A: Flank Q11: As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position? A: Attention Q12: Sailors are in a _____________, when placed in formation one behind the other? A: File Q13: Which of the following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military quarters? A: Refueling evolution Q14: What is the distance between ranks? A: 40 Q15: A/an__________ can be a single person or a section of a larger formation. A: Element Q16: When giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voice? A: Inflection Q17: What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the sailors? A: OPEN RANKS Q18: As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your Sailors? A: Prior to the seasonal uniform change Q19: Which of the following is NOT one of the principles behind an awards system? A: Every Sailor should get an award after a command evolution for the sake of equity and good morale Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.2Military Uniforms, Customs, and Courtesies 1 When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who renders the hand salute? A: The right front passenger seat salutes Q20: What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms? A: The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations Q21: When walking with a senior, what side do you walk on? A: Left Q22: Who exits a military vehicle first? A: The senior leaves first Q23: How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army? A: The hat insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal Q24: What is the U.S. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade? A: Sergeant Major Q25: What is meant by “under arms”? A: When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon Q26: At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer? A: At six paces or closest point of approach Q27: The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of? A: Chief Master Sergeant Q28: What is the definition of “prescribable” items? A: Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniforms at the individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed. Q29: What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade? A: Staff Sergeant Q30: What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign? A: Salute Q31: During the navy’s early years, enlisted uniforms were prescribed by ______” A: Individual ship captains Q32: Which of the following is not a responsibility of senior Non-commissioned officers? A: Make difficult decisions for junior officers Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.3Fleet Response Plan 1 Presence with a purpose” provides what? A: routine, pulse Q33: Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of FRP? A: 2001 Quadrennial Defense Review Q34: Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)? A: Commander, Fleet Forces Command Q35: When is a CSG considered surge ready? A: When they have completed integrated phase training Q36: The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories? A: Maintenance A: Emergency surge, surge ready surge deploy A: Emergency surge, surge ready, routine Q37: The Fleet Response Plan is often referred to as what? A: Fleet Readiness Plan Q38: What time frame does the Fleet Response Plan use as its cycle? A: A 27-month cycle Q39: At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is? A: a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan Q40: The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days? A: 6 Q41: When a ship, sub, or squadron is considered routine deployable? A: After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of underway … Q42: Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet? A: Sea Basing Q43: What does the 6 + 2 plan provide? A: 6 CSG available to deploy within 30 days Q44: Due to the war on terror, Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S. Navy to do what? A: Maintain its relevance Q45: Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan, a carrier strike group is surge ready for how many months? A: 16 Months Q46: The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such as? A: homeland defense Q47: When is a CSG considered in emergency surge status? A: When they have successfully completed their unit level phase training phase

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  • as a leader

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