, NURS 5461 MODULE 1 QUIZ
Adult Gerontology Primary Care
University of Texas at Arlington (UTA)
100-Question Original Practice Examination
2026/2027 Edition
1. Which Medicare component generally covers inpatient hospital care?
A) Medicare Part A
B) Medicare Part B
C) Medicare Part C only
D) Medicare Part D
Correct Answer: Medicare Part A
Rationale: Medicare Part A is primarily hospital insurance and covers inpatient hospital services, selected skilled
nursing facility care, hospice, and certain home health services when eligibility rules are met. Part B focuses mainly
on outpatient and professional services, while Part D is prescription-drug coverage.
2. An older adult needs routine outpatient physician visits and many preventive services. Which
Medicare component is most relevant?
A) Medicare Part A
B) Medicare Part D
C) Hospice benefit only
D) Medicare Part B
Correct Answer: Medicare Part B
Rationale: Medicare Part B covers many physician services, outpatient care, durable medical equipment, and
preventive services. Part A is focused on inpatient and facility-based benefits, while Part D covers prescription
drugs.
Hospice is a distinct benefit for eligible patients choosing comfort-focused end-of-life care.
3. What best describes Medicare Part D?
A) Inpatient hospital insurance
B) Supplemental Medigap insurance
C) Long-term custodial care coverage
D) Prescription-drug coverage
Correct Answer: Prescription-drug coverage
Rationale: Medicare Part D helps cover outpatient prescription medications through approved plans. It is separate
from Part A hospital coverage and Part B medical coverage. Medigap is supplemental insurance, and Medicare
does not broadly cover long-term custodial care simply because a patient needs assistance.
4. A patient is discharged after heart-failure hospitalization. Which intervention best reduces
transition-related harm?
A) Cancel all chronic medications
B) Delay outpatient follow-up until symptoms recur
C) Provide only a diagnosis list
D) Medication reconciliation with early follow-up
Correct Answer: Medication reconciliation with early follow-up
NURS 5461 Module 1 Quiz | Practice Examination | 2026/2027 Edition Page 1
, Rationale: Safe transitions require medication reconciliation, patient education, communication of pending issues,
and timely follow-up. These steps identify discrepancies and worsening symptoms early. Stopping all chronic
medications or delaying follow-up can destabilize disease, while a diagnosis list alone does not support continuity.
5. Which patient is most appropriate for hospice enrollment?
A) A patient needing only routine vaccination
B) A patient with terminal illness who elects comfort-focused care and meets prognosis criteria
C) A patient needing short-term post-operative rehabilitation
D) A stable patient seeking annual screening
Correct Answer: A patient with terminal illness who elects comfort-focused care and meets prognosis criteria
Rationale: Hospice is designed for patients with terminal illness who choose comfort-focused goals and meet
eligibility criteria, typically including limited prognosis. Routine prevention and short-term rehabilitation serve
different goals. Hospice emphasizes symptom relief, quality of life, and support for the patient and family.
6. A patient needs short-term skilled rehabilitation after qualifying hospitalization. Which setting best
fits?
A) Independent living
B) Adult day program only
C) Skilled nursing facility
D) Assisted living without skilled services
Correct Answer: Skilled nursing facility
Rationale: A skilled nursing facility can provide post-acute nursing and rehabilitation services for eligible patients
after hospitalization. Independent living and assisted living focus on housing and varying levels of support, while
adult day programs provide daytime supervision and activities rather than intensive post-acute rehabilitation.
7. Which feature most strongly supports effective care coordination?
A) Shared information and clear responsibility across settings
B) Separate care plans with no communication
C) Elimination of primary care
D) One specialist controlling every decision
Correct Answer: Shared information and clear responsibility across settings
Rationale: Care coordination reduces fragmentation by ensuring providers share relevant information, clarify
responsibility, and align plans across hospitals, clinics, rehabilitation, home care, and specialty services. It should
preserve patient preferences and primary-care continuity rather than isolating services or centralizing all decisions.
8. During discharge planning, which information is most important to communicate to the next
clinician?
A) The hospital room number
B) Medication changes, pending tests, follow-up needs, and warning signs
C) Only the admission diagnosis
D) Only the insurance group number
Correct Answer: Medication changes, pending tests, follow-up needs, and warning signs
Rationale: A safe handoff includes clinically actionable information: current problems, medication changes,
pending studies, follow-up needs, and symptoms requiring escalation. Administrative details can be useful but are
not sufficient to maintain continuity or prevent avoidable adverse events during transition.
9. Which finding most strongly raises concern for clinically significant unintentional weight loss in an
older adult?
A) Loss of more than about 5% of body weight over a short interval
B) Stable weight over 6 months
NURS 5461 Module 1 Quiz | Practice Examination | 2026/2027 Edition Page 2
Adult Gerontology Primary Care
University of Texas at Arlington (UTA)
100-Question Original Practice Examination
2026/2027 Edition
1. Which Medicare component generally covers inpatient hospital care?
A) Medicare Part A
B) Medicare Part B
C) Medicare Part C only
D) Medicare Part D
Correct Answer: Medicare Part A
Rationale: Medicare Part A is primarily hospital insurance and covers inpatient hospital services, selected skilled
nursing facility care, hospice, and certain home health services when eligibility rules are met. Part B focuses mainly
on outpatient and professional services, while Part D is prescription-drug coverage.
2. An older adult needs routine outpatient physician visits and many preventive services. Which
Medicare component is most relevant?
A) Medicare Part A
B) Medicare Part D
C) Hospice benefit only
D) Medicare Part B
Correct Answer: Medicare Part B
Rationale: Medicare Part B covers many physician services, outpatient care, durable medical equipment, and
preventive services. Part A is focused on inpatient and facility-based benefits, while Part D covers prescription
drugs.
Hospice is a distinct benefit for eligible patients choosing comfort-focused end-of-life care.
3. What best describes Medicare Part D?
A) Inpatient hospital insurance
B) Supplemental Medigap insurance
C) Long-term custodial care coverage
D) Prescription-drug coverage
Correct Answer: Prescription-drug coverage
Rationale: Medicare Part D helps cover outpatient prescription medications through approved plans. It is separate
from Part A hospital coverage and Part B medical coverage. Medigap is supplemental insurance, and Medicare
does not broadly cover long-term custodial care simply because a patient needs assistance.
4. A patient is discharged after heart-failure hospitalization. Which intervention best reduces
transition-related harm?
A) Cancel all chronic medications
B) Delay outpatient follow-up until symptoms recur
C) Provide only a diagnosis list
D) Medication reconciliation with early follow-up
Correct Answer: Medication reconciliation with early follow-up
NURS 5461 Module 1 Quiz | Practice Examination | 2026/2027 Edition Page 1
, Rationale: Safe transitions require medication reconciliation, patient education, communication of pending issues,
and timely follow-up. These steps identify discrepancies and worsening symptoms early. Stopping all chronic
medications or delaying follow-up can destabilize disease, while a diagnosis list alone does not support continuity.
5. Which patient is most appropriate for hospice enrollment?
A) A patient needing only routine vaccination
B) A patient with terminal illness who elects comfort-focused care and meets prognosis criteria
C) A patient needing short-term post-operative rehabilitation
D) A stable patient seeking annual screening
Correct Answer: A patient with terminal illness who elects comfort-focused care and meets prognosis criteria
Rationale: Hospice is designed for patients with terminal illness who choose comfort-focused goals and meet
eligibility criteria, typically including limited prognosis. Routine prevention and short-term rehabilitation serve
different goals. Hospice emphasizes symptom relief, quality of life, and support for the patient and family.
6. A patient needs short-term skilled rehabilitation after qualifying hospitalization. Which setting best
fits?
A) Independent living
B) Adult day program only
C) Skilled nursing facility
D) Assisted living without skilled services
Correct Answer: Skilled nursing facility
Rationale: A skilled nursing facility can provide post-acute nursing and rehabilitation services for eligible patients
after hospitalization. Independent living and assisted living focus on housing and varying levels of support, while
adult day programs provide daytime supervision and activities rather than intensive post-acute rehabilitation.
7. Which feature most strongly supports effective care coordination?
A) Shared information and clear responsibility across settings
B) Separate care plans with no communication
C) Elimination of primary care
D) One specialist controlling every decision
Correct Answer: Shared information and clear responsibility across settings
Rationale: Care coordination reduces fragmentation by ensuring providers share relevant information, clarify
responsibility, and align plans across hospitals, clinics, rehabilitation, home care, and specialty services. It should
preserve patient preferences and primary-care continuity rather than isolating services or centralizing all decisions.
8. During discharge planning, which information is most important to communicate to the next
clinician?
A) The hospital room number
B) Medication changes, pending tests, follow-up needs, and warning signs
C) Only the admission diagnosis
D) Only the insurance group number
Correct Answer: Medication changes, pending tests, follow-up needs, and warning signs
Rationale: A safe handoff includes clinically actionable information: current problems, medication changes,
pending studies, follow-up needs, and symptoms requiring escalation. Administrative details can be useful but are
not sufficient to maintain continuity or prevent avoidable adverse events during transition.
9. Which finding most strongly raises concern for clinically significant unintentional weight loss in an
older adult?
A) Loss of more than about 5% of body weight over a short interval
B) Stable weight over 6 months
NURS 5461 Module 1 Quiz | Practice Examination | 2026/2027 Edition Page 2
