NSG 3100 | NSG3100 Exam 2 V3: Fundamentals of Nursing Updated
and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale - Galen
College of Nursing
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a confirmed diagnosis of Clostridioides difficile (C. diff).
Which hand hygiene method is most effective for preventing the spread of this infection?
A. Using an alcohol-based hand rub for 20 seconds.
B. Washing hands with antimicrobial soap and water.
C. Rinsing hands with warm water only.
D. Applying a friction-based foam sanitizer.
Answer: B
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the most important measure to prevent infection. For patients
with Clostridioides difficile, alcohol-based rubs are ineffective against spores. Mechanical
friction from soap and water is required to remove the spores from the hands. Nurses must
perform this action immediately after removing gloves and before leaving the room. This
practice ensures patient safety and prevents the spread of infection to others.
2. The nurse is preparing to enter the room of a client diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis
(TB). Which type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is mandatory?
A. A N95 respirator mask.
B. A N95 respirator and a gown.
C. A surgical mask and sterile gloves.
D. A simple face shield and non-sterile gloves.
Answer: A
Rationale: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions due to the small size of the
infectious droplets. A high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter or N95 respirator is
necessary to filter these particles. The room must also have negative pressure airflow to
keep the air contained. Standard surgical masks do not provide adequate protection against
airborne pathogens. Proper fit testing for the N95 respirator is essential for every
healthcare provider.
3. Which of the following actions by a nursing student indicates a break in surgical aseptic
technique while setting up a sterile field?
A. Opening the outermost flap away from the body.
B. Reaching over the sterile field to pick up a gauze pad.
,C. Touching the outer 1-inch border of the sterile drape.
D. Keeping the sterile field within the line of vision.
Answer: B
Rationale: Surgical asepsis requires strict adherence to protocols to prevent microbial
contamination. Reaching over a sterile field introduces microorganisms from the nurse’s
sleeves or skin into the area. The outer 1-inch border is considered contaminated and may
be touched. All sterile objects must be kept above the waist and within sight at all times.
Maintaining a sterile environment is critical for preventing surgical site infections.
4. A client is placed on droplet precautions for suspected influenza. What is the minimum
distance that visitors should maintain to avoid transmission without PPE?
A. 1 foot
B. 3 feet
C. 2 feet
D. 10 feet
Answer: B
Rationale: Droplet precautions are implemented for pathogens transmitted by large-
particle droplets. These droplets typically travel 3 to 6 feet before falling to the ground.
Healthcare workers and visitors should wear a mask when within this range of the patient.
Influenza is a common example of a virus requiring these specific precautions. Maintaining
physical distance helps reduce the risk of inhalation or mucosal contact with the virus.
5. When removing PPE after caring for a client in isolation, which item should the nurse
remove first according to standard guidelines?
A. Mask
B. Gloves
C. Gown
D. Goggles
Answer: B
Rationale: The sequence of PPE removal is designed to prevent self-contamination during
the process. Gloves are considered the most contaminated item and should be removed
first. The nurse should use a glove-to-glove and skin-to-skin technique to avoid touching
the soiled exterior. After removing gloves, goggles or face shields are typically handled by
the clean ear pieces. Proper doffing technique is essential for the safety of the healthcare
worker.
, 6. The nurse notes that a client feels ‘feverish’ and has a mild headache but no other specific
symptoms. Which stage of infection is the client likely experiencing?
A. Incubation period
B. Convalescence
C. Illness stage
D. Prodromal stage
Answer: D
Rationale: The prodromal stage is characterized by the onset of non-specific symptoms
such as malaise or low-grade fever. During this phase, microorganisms are multiplying and
the person is often highly infectious. The incubation period occurs before any symptoms
are present at all. The illness stage features specific signs and symptoms characteristic of
the specific infection. Understanding these stages helps the nurse monitor disease
progression and implement appropriate care.
7. A fire is discovered in a client’s trash can. Using the RACE acronym, what should the nurse
do first?
A. Rescue and remove any clients in immediate danger.
B. Activate the fire alarm system.
C. Confine the fire by closing all doors.
D. Extinguish the fire using a portable extinguisher.
Answer: A
Rationale: RACE is the standard protocol used in healthcare facilities during a fire
emergency. The first priority is always the safety of the patients in the immediate vicinity.
Nurses must remove individuals from danger before attempting to alert others or contain
the fire. After rescue, the alarm is activated, the area is confined, and extinguishment is
attempted. Patient safety remains the primary goal throughout any emergency response.
8. The nurse is applying a physical restraint to a confused client who is pulling at a central
line. Which action is essential for patient safety?
A. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame using a quick-release tie.
B. Using a square knot to ensure the restraint stays tight.
C. Tying the restraint to the side rails of the bed.
D. Checking the restraint every 4 hours for skin integrity.
Answer: A
and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale - Galen
College of Nursing
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a confirmed diagnosis of Clostridioides difficile (C. diff).
Which hand hygiene method is most effective for preventing the spread of this infection?
A. Using an alcohol-based hand rub for 20 seconds.
B. Washing hands with antimicrobial soap and water.
C. Rinsing hands with warm water only.
D. Applying a friction-based foam sanitizer.
Answer: B
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the most important measure to prevent infection. For patients
with Clostridioides difficile, alcohol-based rubs are ineffective against spores. Mechanical
friction from soap and water is required to remove the spores from the hands. Nurses must
perform this action immediately after removing gloves and before leaving the room. This
practice ensures patient safety and prevents the spread of infection to others.
2. The nurse is preparing to enter the room of a client diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis
(TB). Which type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is mandatory?
A. A N95 respirator mask.
B. A N95 respirator and a gown.
C. A surgical mask and sterile gloves.
D. A simple face shield and non-sterile gloves.
Answer: A
Rationale: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions due to the small size of the
infectious droplets. A high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter or N95 respirator is
necessary to filter these particles. The room must also have negative pressure airflow to
keep the air contained. Standard surgical masks do not provide adequate protection against
airborne pathogens. Proper fit testing for the N95 respirator is essential for every
healthcare provider.
3. Which of the following actions by a nursing student indicates a break in surgical aseptic
technique while setting up a sterile field?
A. Opening the outermost flap away from the body.
B. Reaching over the sterile field to pick up a gauze pad.
,C. Touching the outer 1-inch border of the sterile drape.
D. Keeping the sterile field within the line of vision.
Answer: B
Rationale: Surgical asepsis requires strict adherence to protocols to prevent microbial
contamination. Reaching over a sterile field introduces microorganisms from the nurse’s
sleeves or skin into the area. The outer 1-inch border is considered contaminated and may
be touched. All sterile objects must be kept above the waist and within sight at all times.
Maintaining a sterile environment is critical for preventing surgical site infections.
4. A client is placed on droplet precautions for suspected influenza. What is the minimum
distance that visitors should maintain to avoid transmission without PPE?
A. 1 foot
B. 3 feet
C. 2 feet
D. 10 feet
Answer: B
Rationale: Droplet precautions are implemented for pathogens transmitted by large-
particle droplets. These droplets typically travel 3 to 6 feet before falling to the ground.
Healthcare workers and visitors should wear a mask when within this range of the patient.
Influenza is a common example of a virus requiring these specific precautions. Maintaining
physical distance helps reduce the risk of inhalation or mucosal contact with the virus.
5. When removing PPE after caring for a client in isolation, which item should the nurse
remove first according to standard guidelines?
A. Mask
B. Gloves
C. Gown
D. Goggles
Answer: B
Rationale: The sequence of PPE removal is designed to prevent self-contamination during
the process. Gloves are considered the most contaminated item and should be removed
first. The nurse should use a glove-to-glove and skin-to-skin technique to avoid touching
the soiled exterior. After removing gloves, goggles or face shields are typically handled by
the clean ear pieces. Proper doffing technique is essential for the safety of the healthcare
worker.
, 6. The nurse notes that a client feels ‘feverish’ and has a mild headache but no other specific
symptoms. Which stage of infection is the client likely experiencing?
A. Incubation period
B. Convalescence
C. Illness stage
D. Prodromal stage
Answer: D
Rationale: The prodromal stage is characterized by the onset of non-specific symptoms
such as malaise or low-grade fever. During this phase, microorganisms are multiplying and
the person is often highly infectious. The incubation period occurs before any symptoms
are present at all. The illness stage features specific signs and symptoms characteristic of
the specific infection. Understanding these stages helps the nurse monitor disease
progression and implement appropriate care.
7. A fire is discovered in a client’s trash can. Using the RACE acronym, what should the nurse
do first?
A. Rescue and remove any clients in immediate danger.
B. Activate the fire alarm system.
C. Confine the fire by closing all doors.
D. Extinguish the fire using a portable extinguisher.
Answer: A
Rationale: RACE is the standard protocol used in healthcare facilities during a fire
emergency. The first priority is always the safety of the patients in the immediate vicinity.
Nurses must remove individuals from danger before attempting to alert others or contain
the fire. After rescue, the alarm is activated, the area is confined, and extinguishment is
attempted. Patient safety remains the primary goal throughout any emergency response.
8. The nurse is applying a physical restraint to a confused client who is pulling at a central
line. Which action is essential for patient safety?
A. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame using a quick-release tie.
B. Using a square knot to ensure the restraint stays tight.
C. Tying the restraint to the side rails of the bed.
D. Checking the restraint every 4 hours for skin integrity.
Answer: A
