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Abfas Comprehensive Board Review Exam Questions And Answers 100% Verified. Just Released

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Abfas Comprehensive Board Review Exam Questions And Answers 100% Verified. Just Released

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ABFAS COMPREHENSIVE BOARD
REVIEW EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED. JUST
RELEASED


1. According to the Lauge-Hansen classification of ankle fractures, which stage of the

Supination-External Rotation (SER) injury involves a fracture of the medial malleolus or

rupture of the deltoid ligament?

A. Stage 1


B. Stage 2


C. Stage 4


D. Stage 3


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: SER Stage 1 is PITFL/posterior malleolus avulsion; Stage 2 is

fibula fracture; Stage 3 is AITFL/syndesmosis; Stage 4 is medial malleolus fracture or

deltoid ligament rupture.


2. In a Hawkins Type III talar neck fracture, which of the following describes the

displacement?

A. Nondisplaced fracture of the neck

,B. Displaced fracture with subtalar and tibiotalar dislocation


C. Displaced fracture with subtalar dislocation


D. Displaced fracture with subtalar, tibiotalar, and talonavicular dislocation


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: Hawkins Type III involves displacement at the talar neck with

dislocation of both the subtalar and tibiotalar joints.


3. Which of the following nerves is most commonly at risk during a lateral column

lengthening (Evans) osteotomy?

A. Deep peroneal nerve


B. Sural nerve


C. Saphenous nerve


D. Medial plantar nerve


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: The sural nerve runs along the lateral aspect of the foot, near the

site of the Evans calcaneal osteotomy incision.


4. A patient presents with a ‘Positive Coleman Block Test.’ This indicates that the hindfoot

varus is:

A. Rigid


B. Driven by the forefoot (flexible)

, C. Compensated by the knee


D. Caused by gastrocnemius equinus


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: A positive Coleman Block test means the hindfoot varus corrects

when the first ray is dropped off the block, indicating the varus is flexible and driven by a

plantarflexed first ray.


5. What is the primary mechanism of action for the antibiotic Vancomycin?

A. Inhibition of the 30S ribosomal subunit


B. Inhibition of DNA gyrase


C. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis (peptidoglycan)


D. Disruption of the cytoplasmic membrane


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: Vancomycin is a glycopeptide that inhibits the second stage of

cell wall synthesis in susceptible bacteria.


6. In the Quenu and Kuss classification of Lisfranc injuries, ‘Divergent’ displacement refers to

which type?

A. Type A


B. Type C


C. Type B2

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