ABFAS COMPREHENSIVE BOARD
REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
100% VERIFIED. JUST RELEASED
1. According to the Hawkins classification for talar neck fractures, which type is associated
with a nearly 100 percent risk of avascular necrosis (AVN)?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Hawkins Type IV involves fractures of the talar neck with
dislocation of the body from the subtalar and tibiotalar joints, plus dislocation of the head
from the talonavicular joint, carrying the highest risk of AVN.
2. The Lisfranc ligament connects which two bones?
A. Lateral cuneiform and third metatarsal base
B. Medial cuneiform and first metatarsal base
C. Intermediate cuneiform and second metatarsal base
D. Medial cuneiform and second metatarsal base
,Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The Lisfranc ligament is an interosseous ligament that runs from
the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the second metatarsal
base.
3. What is the gold standard for the definitive diagnosis of osteomyelitis?
A. Bone biopsy and culture
B. MRI with gadolinium
C. Technetium-99m bone scan
D. Probing to bone
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: While MRI is highly sensitive, bone biopsy for histopathology
and culture remains the gold standard for diagnosing osteomyelitis.
4. Which Lauge-Hansen stage is characterized by a fracture of the medial malleolus or rupture
of the deltoid ligament in a Supination-External Rotation (SER) injury?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage IV
D. Stage III
Answer: C
, Conceptual Explanation: SER Stage IV completes the injury pattern with a medial
malleolar fracture or deltoid ligament rupture.
5. A Sanders Type IIIAB calcaneal fracture indicates how many articular fragments and which
primary lines?
A. Three fragments with lines through the lateral and central columns
B. Two fragments with a line in the lateral column
C. Three fragments with lines through the central and medial columns
D. Four fragments with comminution
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Sanders Type III involves three articular fragments; ‘AB’ denotes
fracture lines through the lateral (A) and central (B) columns of the posterior facet.
6. What is the primary deformity corrected by a Cotton osteotomy?
A. Forefoot adductus
B. Forefoot supinatus or fixed varus
C. Forefoot valgus
D. Forefoot equinus
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: A Cotton osteotomy is an opening wedge osteotomy of the
medial cuneiform used to plantarflex the first ray, correcting forefoot varus/supinatus.
REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
100% VERIFIED. JUST RELEASED
1. According to the Hawkins classification for talar neck fractures, which type is associated
with a nearly 100 percent risk of avascular necrosis (AVN)?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Hawkins Type IV involves fractures of the talar neck with
dislocation of the body from the subtalar and tibiotalar joints, plus dislocation of the head
from the talonavicular joint, carrying the highest risk of AVN.
2. The Lisfranc ligament connects which two bones?
A. Lateral cuneiform and third metatarsal base
B. Medial cuneiform and first metatarsal base
C. Intermediate cuneiform and second metatarsal base
D. Medial cuneiform and second metatarsal base
,Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The Lisfranc ligament is an interosseous ligament that runs from
the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the second metatarsal
base.
3. What is the gold standard for the definitive diagnosis of osteomyelitis?
A. Bone biopsy and culture
B. MRI with gadolinium
C. Technetium-99m bone scan
D. Probing to bone
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: While MRI is highly sensitive, bone biopsy for histopathology
and culture remains the gold standard for diagnosing osteomyelitis.
4. Which Lauge-Hansen stage is characterized by a fracture of the medial malleolus or rupture
of the deltoid ligament in a Supination-External Rotation (SER) injury?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage IV
D. Stage III
Answer: C
, Conceptual Explanation: SER Stage IV completes the injury pattern with a medial
malleolar fracture or deltoid ligament rupture.
5. A Sanders Type IIIAB calcaneal fracture indicates how many articular fragments and which
primary lines?
A. Three fragments with lines through the lateral and central columns
B. Two fragments with a line in the lateral column
C. Three fragments with lines through the central and medial columns
D. Four fragments with comminution
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Sanders Type III involves three articular fragments; ‘AB’ denotes
fracture lines through the lateral (A) and central (B) columns of the posterior facet.
6. What is the primary deformity corrected by a Cotton osteotomy?
A. Forefoot adductus
B. Forefoot supinatus or fixed varus
C. Forefoot valgus
D. Forefoot equinus
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: A Cotton osteotomy is an opening wedge osteotomy of the
medial cuneiform used to plantarflex the first ray, correcting forefoot varus/supinatus.
