ABFAS TRAUMA MASTERY EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED. JUST RELEASED
1. According to the Hawkins classification for talar neck fractures, a Type II fracture involves
which of the following?
A. Subluxation or dislocation of the tibiotalar joint
B. Subluxation or dislocation of the subtalar joint
C. Subluxation or dislocation of both the subtalar and tibiotalar joints
D. Subluxation or dislocation of the subtalar, tibiotalar, and talonavicular joints
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Hawkins Type II involves a vertical fracture of the talar neck
with subluxation or dislocation of the subtalar joint. Hawkins III involves both subtalar and
tibiotalar joints, while IV adds the talonavicular joint.
2. Which Lauge-Hansen injury pattern is characterized by a transverse fracture of the lateral
malleolus at or below the level of the syndesmosis?
A. Pronation-Abduction (PAB)
B. Supination-External Rotation (SER)
C. Supination-Adduction (SAD)
,D. Pronation-External Rotation (PER)
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: SAD Stage 1 involves a transverse avulsion of the lateral
malleolus or rupture of the lateral collateral ligaments.
3. What is the most likely risk of avascular necrosis (AVN) in a Hawkins Type III talar neck
fracture?
A. 0-15%
B. 20-50%
C. 75-100%
D. 10-25%
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Hawkins Type III fractures carry a high risk of AVN, often cited
between 75% to 100%, due to the disruption of the three main arterial sources to the talar
body.
4. In the Sanders classification of calcaneal fractures, which imaging plane is utilized and what
defines the types?
A. Sagittal CT; number of primary fracture lines
B. Coronal CT; number of articular fragments of the posterior facet
C. Transverse CT; degree of comminution of the sustentaculum tali
, D. Coronal CT; width of the calcaneal body
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The Sanders classification is based on coronal CT images
through the widest part of the posterior facet of the calcaneus, counting the number of
articular fragments.
5. The ‘Fleck sign’ in a Lisfranc injury represents an avulsion fracture of which structure?
A. The dorsal cuneometatarsal ligament
B. The Lisfranc ligament (interosseous C1-M2 ligament)
C. The tibialis anterior tendon insertion
D. The plantar fascia
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The Fleck sign is a small bone fragment seen in the space
between the first and second metatarsal bases, indicating an avulsion of the Lisfranc
ligament from the base of the second metatarsal.
6. A 5th metatarsal fracture located at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction (Zone 2) is
commonly known as:
A. Pseudo-Jones fracture
B. Avulsion fracture
C. Stress fracture
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED. JUST RELEASED
1. According to the Hawkins classification for talar neck fractures, a Type II fracture involves
which of the following?
A. Subluxation or dislocation of the tibiotalar joint
B. Subluxation or dislocation of the subtalar joint
C. Subluxation or dislocation of both the subtalar and tibiotalar joints
D. Subluxation or dislocation of the subtalar, tibiotalar, and talonavicular joints
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Hawkins Type II involves a vertical fracture of the talar neck
with subluxation or dislocation of the subtalar joint. Hawkins III involves both subtalar and
tibiotalar joints, while IV adds the talonavicular joint.
2. Which Lauge-Hansen injury pattern is characterized by a transverse fracture of the lateral
malleolus at or below the level of the syndesmosis?
A. Pronation-Abduction (PAB)
B. Supination-External Rotation (SER)
C. Supination-Adduction (SAD)
,D. Pronation-External Rotation (PER)
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: SAD Stage 1 involves a transverse avulsion of the lateral
malleolus or rupture of the lateral collateral ligaments.
3. What is the most likely risk of avascular necrosis (AVN) in a Hawkins Type III talar neck
fracture?
A. 0-15%
B. 20-50%
C. 75-100%
D. 10-25%
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Hawkins Type III fractures carry a high risk of AVN, often cited
between 75% to 100%, due to the disruption of the three main arterial sources to the talar
body.
4. In the Sanders classification of calcaneal fractures, which imaging plane is utilized and what
defines the types?
A. Sagittal CT; number of primary fracture lines
B. Coronal CT; number of articular fragments of the posterior facet
C. Transverse CT; degree of comminution of the sustentaculum tali
, D. Coronal CT; width of the calcaneal body
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The Sanders classification is based on coronal CT images
through the widest part of the posterior facet of the calcaneus, counting the number of
articular fragments.
5. The ‘Fleck sign’ in a Lisfranc injury represents an avulsion fracture of which structure?
A. The dorsal cuneometatarsal ligament
B. The Lisfranc ligament (interosseous C1-M2 ligament)
C. The tibialis anterior tendon insertion
D. The plantar fascia
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The Fleck sign is a small bone fragment seen in the space
between the first and second metatarsal bases, indicating an avulsion of the Lisfranc
ligament from the base of the second metatarsal.
6. A 5th metatarsal fracture located at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction (Zone 2) is
commonly known as:
A. Pseudo-Jones fracture
B. Avulsion fracture
C. Stress fracture
