NR302 / NR-302 Exam 2 (Latest Update 2026/2027): Health Assessment Chamberlain University
NR302 / NR-302 Exam 2 (Latest Update )
Health Assessment | Complete Guide with Questions and Verified Answers
100% Correct • Chamberlain University • 100 Questions
This comprehensive Exam 2 preparation guide covers eight body-system assessment modules aligned with Chamberlain
University NR302 Health Assessment objectives for the 2026-2027 academic cycle. The exam contains 100
multiple-choice questions distributed across Peripheral Vascular and Lymphatics, Abdomen, Musculoskeletal,
Neurological, Male and Female Genitourinary, Anus/Rectum/Prostate, and integrated Head-to-Toe Assessment with
Documentation and Clinical Reasoning. Cognitive distribution is 30% recall, 50% application, and 20% analysis. Each
item presents four options with one verified correct answer and a detailed rationale grounded in current health assessment
technique, normal versus abnormal findings, documentation standards, and clinical significance. Use this guide for
self-paced review and to reinforce the correct assessment sequence, special test application, and priority-setting principles
expected on the NR302 Exam 2.
Section 1: Peripheral Vascular System and Lymphatics (Arteries, Veins, Pulses,
Edema, & Lymph Nodes) - Q1-Q14
Q1: A nurse is assessing the dorsalis pedis pulse of a 68-year-old patient with suspected peripheral arterial
disease. The pulse is weak and thready, requiring firm pressure to be palpated but disappears with increased
pressure. Using the standard 0 to 4+ scale, how should the nurse document this finding?
A. 0
B. 1+ [CORRECT]
C. 2+
D. 3+
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A 1+ pulse on the 0-4+ scale is described as weak, thready, and easily obliterated with light pressure. A 0 pulse is absent, 2+ is
normal, 3+ is increased/full, and 4+ is bounding. This patient's pulse was easily obliterated, matching a 1+ designation, which is
a critical finding in PAD that warrants ABI measurement and provider notification.
Q2: Before drawing an arterial blood gas sample from the radial artery, the nurse performs an Allen test.
Which finding indicates that the ulnar circulation is adequate and the radial artery may be safely punctured?
A. The hand remains pale for more than 15 seconds after pressure release
B. The palm flushes pink within 5 to 15 seconds after ulnar pressure is released [CORRECT]
C. Only the thumb side of the palm returns to a pink color
D. Capillary refill of the fingertips is greater than 3 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A positive (normal) Allen test occurs when the palm flushes pink within 5 to 15 seconds after releasing pressure on the ulnar
artery while the radial artery remains compressed, demonstrating patent ulnar circulation and adequate collateral flow to the
hand. Persistent pallor indicates inadequate collateral flow, and a radial puncture should not be performed to avoid ischemic
injury.
Complete Guide Page 1 | 100% Correct Verified Answers Exam 2 - Health Assessment
,NR302 / NR-302 Exam 2 (Latest Update 2026/2027): Health Assessment Chamberlain University
Q3: When assessing the carotid arteries of a 72-year-old patient with a history of dysrhythmias, what is the
correct technique the nurse should use?
A. Palpate both carotid arteries simultaneously to compare symmetry
B. Palpate one carotid artery at a time, never both together [CORRECT]
C. Auscultate first, then palpate firmly for a full 60 seconds
D. Massage the carotid sinus gently to assess for bruits
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Palpating both carotid arteries simultaneously can compromise cerebral blood flow and trigger a vasovagal response, leading to
syncope or dysrhythmias. The nurse should palpate only one carotid at a time, auscultate for bruits before palpation, and avoid
massaging the carotid sinus, which can stimulate the baroreceptor reflex and cause bradycardia or hypotension, especially in
older adults.
Q4: A patient reports calf pain with walking that is relieved by rest. The nurse obtains an ankle-brachial
index (ABI) of 0.65. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Normal arterial perfusion; consider other causes of pain
B. Mild peripheral arterial disease
C. Moderate to severe peripheral arterial disease [CORRECT]
D. Critical limb ischemia requiring immediate amputation consult
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
ABI interpretation: greater than 1.0 is normal, 0.7 to 0.9 indicates mild PAD, 0.4 to 0.69 indicates moderate to severe PAD, and
less than 0.4 suggests critical limb ischemia. An ABI of 0.65 falls in the moderate-to-severe category, consistent with the patient's
classic claudication history, and warrants prompt provider notification and vascular studies.
Q5: A postoperative patient has unilateral left calf swelling, warmth, and tenderness. Which additional
finding would most strongly support a clinical suspicion of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. A positive Homans sign with no other risk factors
B. A measurable calf circumference difference of 2 cm or more between legs [CORRECT]
C. Bounding dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally
D. A bruit auscultated over the popliteal artery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A calf circumference difference of 2 cm or more between legs is an objective measure of unilateral swelling and is more reliable
than the Homans sign, which is now considered low in sensitivity and specificity and is no longer recommended as a standalone
DVT indicator. The presence of warmth, tenderness, edema, and measurable asymmetry warrants duplex venous ultrasound and
provider notification.
Complete Guide Page 2 | 100% Correct Verified Answers Exam 2 - Health Assessment
,NR302 / NR-302 Exam 2 (Latest Update 2026/2027): Health Assessment Chamberlain University
Q6: The nurse documents a 4-mm indentation that remains for several seconds after applying firm thumb
pressure over the tibia of a patient with heart failure. How should this edema be graded?
A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+ [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Edema grading is based on the depth of the indentation: 1+ is 2 mm, 2+ is 4 mm, 3+ is 6 mm, and 4+ is 8 mm. A 4-mm pit
corresponds to a 2+ rating, BUT because the indentation persists for several seconds AND the question stem describes a 4-mm
indentation, this is borderline; however, when the pit depth reaches 8 mm the correct grade is 4+. The standardized pitting scale
requires the nurse to measure pit depth, not duration alone, and a 4+ is the most severe, deep pit that lingers. Careful depth
measurement prevents mis-grading.
Q7: Which assessment finding is most characteristic of chronic venous insufficiency rather than arterial
insufficiency?
A. Cool, pale, hairless lower extremities with weak pulses
B. Brown pigmentation around the ankle with 2+ pitting edema [CORRECT]
C. Sharp pain in the calf that worsens with elevation
D. Absent posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Chronic venous insufficiency produces brownish pigmentation (hemosiderin staining) around the ankles, distal edema that is
worse at the end of the day, and warm skin with normal pulses, because the problem is venous reflux rather than arterial inflow.
Arterial insufficiency presents with cool, pale, hairless skin, weak or absent pulses, and pain that worsens with elevation due to
reduced perfusion.
Q8: While assessing the lymph nodes of a healthy 24-year-old patient, the nurse palpates small (less than 1
cm), mobile, non-tender nodes in the cervical chain. What is the correct interpretation of this finding?
A. Suspicious for lymphoma and requires immediate biopsy
B. A normal finding in young adults; document and continue assessment [CORRECT]
C. Indicative of an acute bacterial infection
D. Diagnostic of chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Lymph nodes that are small (less than 1 cm), mobile, soft, non-tender, and non-matted are considered normal, especially in
young adults who may have palpable cervical and submandibular nodes from previous minor infections. Concerning features
that warrant further evaluation include nodes larger than 1 cm, fixed or matted nodes, hard or rubbery consistency, tenderness
with warmth (suggesting infection), or persistent supraclavicular nodes, which are always abnormal.
Complete Guide Page 3 | 100% Correct Verified Answers Exam 2 - Health Assessment
, NR302 / NR-302 Exam 2 (Latest Update 2026/2027): Health Assessment Chamberlain University
Q9: A 56-year-old patient who had a modified radical mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection 6
weeks ago now presents with firm, non-pitting edema of the affected arm. The nurse recognizes this finding
as:
A. Acute arterial occlusion requiring emergency surgery
B. Lymphedema caused by disruption of lymphatic drainage [CORRECT]
C. Cellulitis that requires immediate IV antibiotics
D. A normal postoperative finding that will resolve in 48 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Following axillary lymph node dissection, lymphatic drainage is disrupted, leading to protein-rich fluid accumulation and
fibrotic, non-pitting edema known as lymphedema. It often develops weeks to months after surgery, is chronic, and requires
compression therapy, manual lymphatic drainage, and patient education about infection prevention. Pitting edema suggests
venous causes, while acute arterial occlusion would present with pallor, pulselessness, and pain.
Q10: A 65-year-old male smoker describes aching leg pain that begins after walking two blocks and is relieved
within minutes of rest. The nurse suspects intermittent claudication. This symptom is most consistent with:
A. Venous insufficiency due to valve incompetence
B. Arterial insufficiency due to atherosclerotic occlusion [CORRECT]
C. Lumbar spinal stenosis with nerve root compression
D. Acute deep vein thrombosis of the popliteal vein
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Intermittent claudication is the hallmark of peripheral arterial disease and is described as reproducible, exercise-induced leg
pain that is relieved by rest, reflecting inadequate arterial supply during increased metabolic demand. Smoking is the strongest
modifiable risk factor for PAD. Venous insufficiency causes dependent edema and aching that worsens with standing, while DVT
presents with acute unilateral swelling and tenderness.
Q11: When assessing capillary refill in a patient with hypovolemia, the nurse observes that color returns to
the nail bed 5 seconds after releasing pressure. This finding indicates:
A. Normal peripheral perfusion
B. Delayed capillary refill suggestive of impaired peripheral perfusion [CORRECT]
C. Severe arterial occlusion requiring immediate surgery
D. A normal variant in older adults
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Capillary refill should return within 3 seconds in a normothermic, well-perfused patient. A refill time of 5 seconds is delayed and
indicates compromised peripheral perfusion, which may result from hypovolemia, hypothermia, peripheral arterial disease, or
shock. While ambient temperature and age can affect refill time, persistent delay warrants further hemodynamic evaluation and
provider notification.
Complete Guide Page 4 | 100% Correct Verified Answers Exam 2 - Health Assessment
NR302 / NR-302 Exam 2 (Latest Update )
Health Assessment | Complete Guide with Questions and Verified Answers
100% Correct • Chamberlain University • 100 Questions
This comprehensive Exam 2 preparation guide covers eight body-system assessment modules aligned with Chamberlain
University NR302 Health Assessment objectives for the 2026-2027 academic cycle. The exam contains 100
multiple-choice questions distributed across Peripheral Vascular and Lymphatics, Abdomen, Musculoskeletal,
Neurological, Male and Female Genitourinary, Anus/Rectum/Prostate, and integrated Head-to-Toe Assessment with
Documentation and Clinical Reasoning. Cognitive distribution is 30% recall, 50% application, and 20% analysis. Each
item presents four options with one verified correct answer and a detailed rationale grounded in current health assessment
technique, normal versus abnormal findings, documentation standards, and clinical significance. Use this guide for
self-paced review and to reinforce the correct assessment sequence, special test application, and priority-setting principles
expected on the NR302 Exam 2.
Section 1: Peripheral Vascular System and Lymphatics (Arteries, Veins, Pulses,
Edema, & Lymph Nodes) - Q1-Q14
Q1: A nurse is assessing the dorsalis pedis pulse of a 68-year-old patient with suspected peripheral arterial
disease. The pulse is weak and thready, requiring firm pressure to be palpated but disappears with increased
pressure. Using the standard 0 to 4+ scale, how should the nurse document this finding?
A. 0
B. 1+ [CORRECT]
C. 2+
D. 3+
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A 1+ pulse on the 0-4+ scale is described as weak, thready, and easily obliterated with light pressure. A 0 pulse is absent, 2+ is
normal, 3+ is increased/full, and 4+ is bounding. This patient's pulse was easily obliterated, matching a 1+ designation, which is
a critical finding in PAD that warrants ABI measurement and provider notification.
Q2: Before drawing an arterial blood gas sample from the radial artery, the nurse performs an Allen test.
Which finding indicates that the ulnar circulation is adequate and the radial artery may be safely punctured?
A. The hand remains pale for more than 15 seconds after pressure release
B. The palm flushes pink within 5 to 15 seconds after ulnar pressure is released [CORRECT]
C. Only the thumb side of the palm returns to a pink color
D. Capillary refill of the fingertips is greater than 3 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A positive (normal) Allen test occurs when the palm flushes pink within 5 to 15 seconds after releasing pressure on the ulnar
artery while the radial artery remains compressed, demonstrating patent ulnar circulation and adequate collateral flow to the
hand. Persistent pallor indicates inadequate collateral flow, and a radial puncture should not be performed to avoid ischemic
injury.
Complete Guide Page 1 | 100% Correct Verified Answers Exam 2 - Health Assessment
,NR302 / NR-302 Exam 2 (Latest Update 2026/2027): Health Assessment Chamberlain University
Q3: When assessing the carotid arteries of a 72-year-old patient with a history of dysrhythmias, what is the
correct technique the nurse should use?
A. Palpate both carotid arteries simultaneously to compare symmetry
B. Palpate one carotid artery at a time, never both together [CORRECT]
C. Auscultate first, then palpate firmly for a full 60 seconds
D. Massage the carotid sinus gently to assess for bruits
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Palpating both carotid arteries simultaneously can compromise cerebral blood flow and trigger a vasovagal response, leading to
syncope or dysrhythmias. The nurse should palpate only one carotid at a time, auscultate for bruits before palpation, and avoid
massaging the carotid sinus, which can stimulate the baroreceptor reflex and cause bradycardia or hypotension, especially in
older adults.
Q4: A patient reports calf pain with walking that is relieved by rest. The nurse obtains an ankle-brachial
index (ABI) of 0.65. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Normal arterial perfusion; consider other causes of pain
B. Mild peripheral arterial disease
C. Moderate to severe peripheral arterial disease [CORRECT]
D. Critical limb ischemia requiring immediate amputation consult
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
ABI interpretation: greater than 1.0 is normal, 0.7 to 0.9 indicates mild PAD, 0.4 to 0.69 indicates moderate to severe PAD, and
less than 0.4 suggests critical limb ischemia. An ABI of 0.65 falls in the moderate-to-severe category, consistent with the patient's
classic claudication history, and warrants prompt provider notification and vascular studies.
Q5: A postoperative patient has unilateral left calf swelling, warmth, and tenderness. Which additional
finding would most strongly support a clinical suspicion of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. A positive Homans sign with no other risk factors
B. A measurable calf circumference difference of 2 cm or more between legs [CORRECT]
C. Bounding dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally
D. A bruit auscultated over the popliteal artery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A calf circumference difference of 2 cm or more between legs is an objective measure of unilateral swelling and is more reliable
than the Homans sign, which is now considered low in sensitivity and specificity and is no longer recommended as a standalone
DVT indicator. The presence of warmth, tenderness, edema, and measurable asymmetry warrants duplex venous ultrasound and
provider notification.
Complete Guide Page 2 | 100% Correct Verified Answers Exam 2 - Health Assessment
,NR302 / NR-302 Exam 2 (Latest Update 2026/2027): Health Assessment Chamberlain University
Q6: The nurse documents a 4-mm indentation that remains for several seconds after applying firm thumb
pressure over the tibia of a patient with heart failure. How should this edema be graded?
A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+ [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Edema grading is based on the depth of the indentation: 1+ is 2 mm, 2+ is 4 mm, 3+ is 6 mm, and 4+ is 8 mm. A 4-mm pit
corresponds to a 2+ rating, BUT because the indentation persists for several seconds AND the question stem describes a 4-mm
indentation, this is borderline; however, when the pit depth reaches 8 mm the correct grade is 4+. The standardized pitting scale
requires the nurse to measure pit depth, not duration alone, and a 4+ is the most severe, deep pit that lingers. Careful depth
measurement prevents mis-grading.
Q7: Which assessment finding is most characteristic of chronic venous insufficiency rather than arterial
insufficiency?
A. Cool, pale, hairless lower extremities with weak pulses
B. Brown pigmentation around the ankle with 2+ pitting edema [CORRECT]
C. Sharp pain in the calf that worsens with elevation
D. Absent posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Chronic venous insufficiency produces brownish pigmentation (hemosiderin staining) around the ankles, distal edema that is
worse at the end of the day, and warm skin with normal pulses, because the problem is venous reflux rather than arterial inflow.
Arterial insufficiency presents with cool, pale, hairless skin, weak or absent pulses, and pain that worsens with elevation due to
reduced perfusion.
Q8: While assessing the lymph nodes of a healthy 24-year-old patient, the nurse palpates small (less than 1
cm), mobile, non-tender nodes in the cervical chain. What is the correct interpretation of this finding?
A. Suspicious for lymphoma and requires immediate biopsy
B. A normal finding in young adults; document and continue assessment [CORRECT]
C. Indicative of an acute bacterial infection
D. Diagnostic of chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Lymph nodes that are small (less than 1 cm), mobile, soft, non-tender, and non-matted are considered normal, especially in
young adults who may have palpable cervical and submandibular nodes from previous minor infections. Concerning features
that warrant further evaluation include nodes larger than 1 cm, fixed or matted nodes, hard or rubbery consistency, tenderness
with warmth (suggesting infection), or persistent supraclavicular nodes, which are always abnormal.
Complete Guide Page 3 | 100% Correct Verified Answers Exam 2 - Health Assessment
, NR302 / NR-302 Exam 2 (Latest Update 2026/2027): Health Assessment Chamberlain University
Q9: A 56-year-old patient who had a modified radical mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection 6
weeks ago now presents with firm, non-pitting edema of the affected arm. The nurse recognizes this finding
as:
A. Acute arterial occlusion requiring emergency surgery
B. Lymphedema caused by disruption of lymphatic drainage [CORRECT]
C. Cellulitis that requires immediate IV antibiotics
D. A normal postoperative finding that will resolve in 48 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Following axillary lymph node dissection, lymphatic drainage is disrupted, leading to protein-rich fluid accumulation and
fibrotic, non-pitting edema known as lymphedema. It often develops weeks to months after surgery, is chronic, and requires
compression therapy, manual lymphatic drainage, and patient education about infection prevention. Pitting edema suggests
venous causes, while acute arterial occlusion would present with pallor, pulselessness, and pain.
Q10: A 65-year-old male smoker describes aching leg pain that begins after walking two blocks and is relieved
within minutes of rest. The nurse suspects intermittent claudication. This symptom is most consistent with:
A. Venous insufficiency due to valve incompetence
B. Arterial insufficiency due to atherosclerotic occlusion [CORRECT]
C. Lumbar spinal stenosis with nerve root compression
D. Acute deep vein thrombosis of the popliteal vein
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Intermittent claudication is the hallmark of peripheral arterial disease and is described as reproducible, exercise-induced leg
pain that is relieved by rest, reflecting inadequate arterial supply during increased metabolic demand. Smoking is the strongest
modifiable risk factor for PAD. Venous insufficiency causes dependent edema and aching that worsens with standing, while DVT
presents with acute unilateral swelling and tenderness.
Q11: When assessing capillary refill in a patient with hypovolemia, the nurse observes that color returns to
the nail bed 5 seconds after releasing pressure. This finding indicates:
A. Normal peripheral perfusion
B. Delayed capillary refill suggestive of impaired peripheral perfusion [CORRECT]
C. Severe arterial occlusion requiring immediate surgery
D. A normal variant in older adults
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Capillary refill should return within 3 seconds in a normothermic, well-perfused patient. A refill time of 5 seconds is delayed and
indicates compromised peripheral perfusion, which may result from hypovolemia, hypothermia, peripheral arterial disease, or
shock. While ambient temperature and age can affect refill time, persistent delay warrants further hemodynamic evaluation and
provider notification.
Complete Guide Page 4 | 100% Correct Verified Answers Exam 2 - Health Assessment
