HESI PN Exit Exam Comprehensive
Review (Latest 2026/2027 Update)
Complete Q&A with Verified Answers
and Detailed Rationales Practice
HESI PN Exit Exam Comprehensive Review (Latest |
Comprehensive Examination
HESI PN Exit Exam Comprehensive Review (Latest
2026/2027 Update) Complete Q&A with Verified Answers and
Detailed Rationales Practice Questions for NCLEX-PN
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for HESI PN Exit Exam Comprehensive Review
(Latest 2026/2027 Update) Complete Q&A with Verified
Answers and Detailed Rationales Practice Questions for
NCLEX-PN Readiness A+ Grade Elsevier. Every item uses a
focused exam stem, four response options, a keyed response,
and a clear rationale, making it easier to understand the
subject, spot distractors, and build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client receiving continuous IV heparin infusion. The
aPTT is 98 seconds (control 30-40 seconds). Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Continue the infusion and recheck aPTT in 6 hours.
B. Stop the infusion and prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
C. Decrease the infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr.
D. Administer vitamin K subcutaneously.
Correct Answer: B - Stop the infusion and prepare to administer
protamine sulfate.
RATIONALE
An aPTT of 98 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk
of hemorrhage; the nurse must stop the heparin infusion immediately
and anticipate protamine sulfate as the antidote. Continuing or merely
decreasing the rate would delay reversal of anticoagulation. Vitamin K
is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.
Question 2
Which assessment finding in a client with a new below-the-knee amputation
requires immediate intervention?
A. Phantom limb pain described as burning.
B. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing.
C. A tight, circumferential wrap that has slipped distally.
D. Mild incisional pain relieved by analgesics.
Correct Answer: C - A tight, circumferential wrap that has
slipped distally.
Page 2
, RATIONALE
A slipped compression wrap can cause constriction and compromise
circulation to the residual limb; it must be rewrapped immediately to
ensure proper shaping and perfusion. Phantom pain and
serosanguineous drainage are expected. Mild pain is managed with
analgesics.
Question 3
A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium carbonate. Which client
statement indicates a need for immediate follow-up?
A. I drink at least 2 liters of water daily.
B. I take ibuprofen for headaches.
C. I have been sweating more in hot weather.
D. I take my lithium with meals.
Correct Answer: B - I take ibuprofen for headaches.
RATIONALE
NSAIDs like ibuprofen reduce renal lithium clearance, increasing the
risk of toxicity. Adequate hydration and taking lithium with food are
appropriate. Increased sweating can lead to sodium depletion and
lithium retention, but the use of ibuprofen is a more direct and serious
interaction.
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing a medication prescription for a client with heart failure:
carvedilol 3.125 mg PO BID. Which assessment finding should the nurse
report before administering the first dose?
A. Heart rate 58 beats/min.
B. Blood pressure 88/54 mm Hg.
C. Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L.
D. Weight loss of 1 kg since yesterday.
Page 3
, Correct Answer: B - Blood pressure 88/54 mm Hg.
RATIONALE
Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can cause hypotension and
bradycardia; a systolic BP below 90 mm Hg warrants holding the dose
and notifying the provider. A heart rate of 58 is borderline but
acceptable if asymptomatic. Normal potassium and weight loss are not
contraindications.
Question 5
A client at 38 weeks gestation is admitted with severe preeclampsia. Which
intervention should the nurse anticipate as the priority?
A. Administer betamethasone to promote fetal lung maturity.
B. Initiate magnesium sulfate infusion for seizure prophylaxis.
C. Perform a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being.
D. Encourage ambulation to reduce blood pressure.
Correct Answer: B - Initiate magnesium sulfate infusion for
seizure prophylaxis.
RATIONALE
For severe preeclampsia, the priority is preventing seizures with
magnesium sulfate. Betamethasone is given for fetal lung maturity if
delivery is anticipated before 37 weeks, but seizure prophylaxis is
immediate. Ambulation is contraindicated due to fall risk and potential
for seizures.
Question 6
A nurse is assessing a child with suspected epiglottitis. Which action is
contraindicated?
A. Obtaining a throat swab for culture.
B. Maintaining the child in a sitting position.
C. Administering prescribed antibiotics.
Page 4
Review (Latest 2026/2027 Update)
Complete Q&A with Verified Answers
and Detailed Rationales Practice
HESI PN Exit Exam Comprehensive Review (Latest |
Comprehensive Examination
HESI PN Exit Exam Comprehensive Review (Latest
2026/2027 Update) Complete Q&A with Verified Answers and
Detailed Rationales Practice Questions for NCLEX-PN
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for HESI PN Exit Exam Comprehensive Review
(Latest 2026/2027 Update) Complete Q&A with Verified
Answers and Detailed Rationales Practice Questions for
NCLEX-PN Readiness A+ Grade Elsevier. Every item uses a
focused exam stem, four response options, a keyed response,
and a clear rationale, making it easier to understand the
subject, spot distractors, and build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client receiving continuous IV heparin infusion. The
aPTT is 98 seconds (control 30-40 seconds). Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Continue the infusion and recheck aPTT in 6 hours.
B. Stop the infusion and prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
C. Decrease the infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr.
D. Administer vitamin K subcutaneously.
Correct Answer: B - Stop the infusion and prepare to administer
protamine sulfate.
RATIONALE
An aPTT of 98 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk
of hemorrhage; the nurse must stop the heparin infusion immediately
and anticipate protamine sulfate as the antidote. Continuing or merely
decreasing the rate would delay reversal of anticoagulation. Vitamin K
is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.
Question 2
Which assessment finding in a client with a new below-the-knee amputation
requires immediate intervention?
A. Phantom limb pain described as burning.
B. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing.
C. A tight, circumferential wrap that has slipped distally.
D. Mild incisional pain relieved by analgesics.
Correct Answer: C - A tight, circumferential wrap that has
slipped distally.
Page 2
, RATIONALE
A slipped compression wrap can cause constriction and compromise
circulation to the residual limb; it must be rewrapped immediately to
ensure proper shaping and perfusion. Phantom pain and
serosanguineous drainage are expected. Mild pain is managed with
analgesics.
Question 3
A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium carbonate. Which client
statement indicates a need for immediate follow-up?
A. I drink at least 2 liters of water daily.
B. I take ibuprofen for headaches.
C. I have been sweating more in hot weather.
D. I take my lithium with meals.
Correct Answer: B - I take ibuprofen for headaches.
RATIONALE
NSAIDs like ibuprofen reduce renal lithium clearance, increasing the
risk of toxicity. Adequate hydration and taking lithium with food are
appropriate. Increased sweating can lead to sodium depletion and
lithium retention, but the use of ibuprofen is a more direct and serious
interaction.
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing a medication prescription for a client with heart failure:
carvedilol 3.125 mg PO BID. Which assessment finding should the nurse
report before administering the first dose?
A. Heart rate 58 beats/min.
B. Blood pressure 88/54 mm Hg.
C. Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L.
D. Weight loss of 1 kg since yesterday.
Page 3
, Correct Answer: B - Blood pressure 88/54 mm Hg.
RATIONALE
Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can cause hypotension and
bradycardia; a systolic BP below 90 mm Hg warrants holding the dose
and notifying the provider. A heart rate of 58 is borderline but
acceptable if asymptomatic. Normal potassium and weight loss are not
contraindications.
Question 5
A client at 38 weeks gestation is admitted with severe preeclampsia. Which
intervention should the nurse anticipate as the priority?
A. Administer betamethasone to promote fetal lung maturity.
B. Initiate magnesium sulfate infusion for seizure prophylaxis.
C. Perform a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being.
D. Encourage ambulation to reduce blood pressure.
Correct Answer: B - Initiate magnesium sulfate infusion for
seizure prophylaxis.
RATIONALE
For severe preeclampsia, the priority is preventing seizures with
magnesium sulfate. Betamethasone is given for fetal lung maturity if
delivery is anticipated before 37 weeks, but seizure prophylaxis is
immediate. Ambulation is contraindicated due to fall risk and potential
for seizures.
Question 6
A nurse is assessing a child with suspected epiglottitis. Which action is
contraindicated?
A. Obtaining a throat swab for culture.
B. Maintaining the child in a sitting position.
C. Administering prescribed antibiotics.
Page 4
