HESI PN Exit Exam 2026/2027 200
Verified Questions & Answers Elsevier
NCLEX-PN Alignment Prep 8 Core
Domains Instant Download | Verified
HESI PN Exit Exam 2026/2027 200 Verified | Comprehensive
Examination
HESI PN Exit Exam 2026/2027 200 Verified Questions &
Answers Elsevier NCLEX-PN Alignment Prep 8 Core
Domains Instant Download actual exam preparation
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for HESI PN Exit Exam 2026/2027 200 Verified
Questions & Answers Elsevier NCLEX-PN Alignment Prep 8
Core Domains Instant Download. Every item uses a focused
exam stem, four response options, a keyed response, and a clear
rationale, making it easier to understand the subject, spot
distractors, and build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
A client receiving continuous IV heparin infusion has an aPTT of 98 seconds
(control 30 seconds). Which action should the LPN/LVN implement first?
A. Administer protamine sulfate IV push immediately.
B. Hold the infusion and notify the registered nurse or provider.
C. Continue the infusion and recheck aPTT in 6 hours.
D. Decrease the infusion rate by 50% and document.
Correct Answer: B - Hold the infusion and notify the registered
nurse or provider.
RATIONALE
The therapeutic aPTT range for heparin is typically 1.5-2.5 times
control (45-75 sec); a value of 98 sec indicates supratherapeutic
anticoagulation with bleeding risk. The LPN/LVN must hold the
infusion and notify the RN/provider, as protamine administration and
rate adjustment require provider orders. Continuing or merely
decreasing the rate without holding would prolong dangerous
anticoagulation.
Question 2
A client with major depressive disorder is started on phenelzine. Which dietary
selection indicates the client understands the required teaching?
A. Grilled chicken with steamed broccoli and a glass of red wine
B. Pepperoni pizza with a side of aged cheddar cheese
C. Baked salmon with quinoa and fresh green beans
D. Avocado toast with soy sauce and a banana
Correct Answer: C - Baked salmon with quinoa and fresh green
beans
Page 2
, RATIONALE
Phenelzine is an MAOI; clients must avoid tyramine-rich foods (aged
cheese, cured meats, soy products, red wine, overripe avocados) to
prevent hypertensive crisis. Baked salmon with quinoa and fresh green
beans contains negligible tyramine and is safe. The other options
contain multiple high-tyramine items.
Question 3
A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory finding would
the LPN/LVN expect to be most significantly elevated?
A. Serum amylase
B. Serum lipase
C. Blood glucose
D. Serum calcium
Correct Answer: B - Serum lipase
RATIONALE
Serum lipase is more specific and remains elevated longer (8-14 days)
than amylase in acute pancreatitis, making it the most reliable
diagnostic marker. Amylase rises early but normalizes within 3-5 days
and is less specific. Glucose may be mildly elevated and calcium is
typically decreased due to saponification, but lipase is the key
diagnostic indicator.
Question 4
The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to water-seal
drainage. Which observation requires immediate intervention?
A. Tidaling is present in the water-seal chamber.
B. Continuous bubbling is noted in the water-seal chamber.
C. The drainage collection chamber contains 50 mL of serosanguineous
fluid.
D. The client reports pain at the insertion site rated 4/10.
Page 3
, Correct Answer: B - Continuous bubbling is noted in the
water-seal chamber.
RATIONALE
Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak in
the system, which can lead to ineffective lung re-expansion and
pneumothorax. Tidaling is a normal fluctuation with respiration.
Serosanguineous drainage and incisional pain are expected findings.
The air leak must be located and corrected immediately.
Question 5
A client with type 1 diabetes has a blood glucose of 52 mg/dL and is alert and
able to swallow. Which action should the LPN/LVN take first?
A. Administer 15 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate orally.
B. Administer glucagon 1 mg IM immediately.
C. Start an IV infusion of D5W at 100 mL/hr.
D. Recheck the blood glucose in 30 minutes before intervening.
Correct Answer: A - Administer 15 g of a fast-acting
carbohydrate orally.
RATIONALE
For conscious hypoglycemia (<70 mg/dL), the priority is to administer
15 g of fast-acting oral carbohydrate (e.g., 4 oz juice, glucose tablets)
per the Rule of 15. Glucagon or IV dextrose is reserved for
unconscious clients or those unable to swallow. Waiting to recheck
without treatment risks worsening hypoglycemia.
Question 6
The LPN/LVN is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the
LPN/LVN assess first?
A. A client with COPD reporting increased sputum production and a
new-onset fever
Page 4
Verified Questions & Answers Elsevier
NCLEX-PN Alignment Prep 8 Core
Domains Instant Download | Verified
HESI PN Exit Exam 2026/2027 200 Verified | Comprehensive
Examination
HESI PN Exit Exam 2026/2027 200 Verified Questions &
Answers Elsevier NCLEX-PN Alignment Prep 8 Core
Domains Instant Download actual exam preparation
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for HESI PN Exit Exam 2026/2027 200 Verified
Questions & Answers Elsevier NCLEX-PN Alignment Prep 8
Core Domains Instant Download. Every item uses a focused
exam stem, four response options, a keyed response, and a clear
rationale, making it easier to understand the subject, spot
distractors, and build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
A client receiving continuous IV heparin infusion has an aPTT of 98 seconds
(control 30 seconds). Which action should the LPN/LVN implement first?
A. Administer protamine sulfate IV push immediately.
B. Hold the infusion and notify the registered nurse or provider.
C. Continue the infusion and recheck aPTT in 6 hours.
D. Decrease the infusion rate by 50% and document.
Correct Answer: B - Hold the infusion and notify the registered
nurse or provider.
RATIONALE
The therapeutic aPTT range for heparin is typically 1.5-2.5 times
control (45-75 sec); a value of 98 sec indicates supratherapeutic
anticoagulation with bleeding risk. The LPN/LVN must hold the
infusion and notify the RN/provider, as protamine administration and
rate adjustment require provider orders. Continuing or merely
decreasing the rate without holding would prolong dangerous
anticoagulation.
Question 2
A client with major depressive disorder is started on phenelzine. Which dietary
selection indicates the client understands the required teaching?
A. Grilled chicken with steamed broccoli and a glass of red wine
B. Pepperoni pizza with a side of aged cheddar cheese
C. Baked salmon with quinoa and fresh green beans
D. Avocado toast with soy sauce and a banana
Correct Answer: C - Baked salmon with quinoa and fresh green
beans
Page 2
, RATIONALE
Phenelzine is an MAOI; clients must avoid tyramine-rich foods (aged
cheese, cured meats, soy products, red wine, overripe avocados) to
prevent hypertensive crisis. Baked salmon with quinoa and fresh green
beans contains negligible tyramine and is safe. The other options
contain multiple high-tyramine items.
Question 3
A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory finding would
the LPN/LVN expect to be most significantly elevated?
A. Serum amylase
B. Serum lipase
C. Blood glucose
D. Serum calcium
Correct Answer: B - Serum lipase
RATIONALE
Serum lipase is more specific and remains elevated longer (8-14 days)
than amylase in acute pancreatitis, making it the most reliable
diagnostic marker. Amylase rises early but normalizes within 3-5 days
and is less specific. Glucose may be mildly elevated and calcium is
typically decreased due to saponification, but lipase is the key
diagnostic indicator.
Question 4
The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to water-seal
drainage. Which observation requires immediate intervention?
A. Tidaling is present in the water-seal chamber.
B. Continuous bubbling is noted in the water-seal chamber.
C. The drainage collection chamber contains 50 mL of serosanguineous
fluid.
D. The client reports pain at the insertion site rated 4/10.
Page 3
, Correct Answer: B - Continuous bubbling is noted in the
water-seal chamber.
RATIONALE
Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak in
the system, which can lead to ineffective lung re-expansion and
pneumothorax. Tidaling is a normal fluctuation with respiration.
Serosanguineous drainage and incisional pain are expected findings.
The air leak must be located and corrected immediately.
Question 5
A client with type 1 diabetes has a blood glucose of 52 mg/dL and is alert and
able to swallow. Which action should the LPN/LVN take first?
A. Administer 15 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate orally.
B. Administer glucagon 1 mg IM immediately.
C. Start an IV infusion of D5W at 100 mL/hr.
D. Recheck the blood glucose in 30 minutes before intervening.
Correct Answer: A - Administer 15 g of a fast-acting
carbohydrate orally.
RATIONALE
For conscious hypoglycemia (<70 mg/dL), the priority is to administer
15 g of fast-acting oral carbohydrate (e.g., 4 oz juice, glucose tablets)
per the Rule of 15. Glucagon or IV dextrose is reserved for
unconscious clients or those unable to swallow. Waiting to recheck
without treatment risks worsening hypoglycemia.
Question 6
The LPN/LVN is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the
LPN/LVN assess first?
A. A client with COPD reporting increased sputum production and a
new-onset fever
Page 4
