HESI OB Maternity Online Practice
Exam Comprehensive Question Bank
with Complete Practice Exam
Questions, Verified Correct Answers &
HESI OB Maternity Online Practice Exam Comprehensive |
Comprehensive Examination
HESI OB Maternity Online Practice Exam Comprehensive
Question Bank with Complete Practice Exam Questions,
Verified Correct Answers & Detailed Rationales Updated
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for HESI OB Maternity Online Practice Exam
Comprehensive Question Bank with Complete Practice Exam
Questions, Verified Correct Answers & Detailed Rationales
Updated 2026/27. Every item uses a focused exam stem, four
response options, a keyed response, and a clear rationale,
making it easier to understand the subject, spot distractors, and
build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
A laboring client at 6 cm dilation suddenly develops a prolonged deceleration
to 70 bpm lasting 4 minutes. The cervix is unchanged, and the presenting part
is at -1 station. Which action should the nurse anticipate as the priority
intervention?
A. Administer terbutaline subcutaneously and prepare for emergent
cesarean delivery.
B. Perform a sterile vaginal exam to assess for cord prolapse and elevate
the presenting part.
C. Increase oxytocin infusion to augment labor and improve fetal descent.
D. Apply an internal fetal scalp electrode and continue continuous
monitoring.
Correct Answer: B - Perform a sterile vaginal exam to assess for
cord prolapse and elevate the presenting part.
RATIONALE
A prolonged deceleration with unchanged cervical exam and high
station raises concern for umbilical cord prolapse, requiring immediate
vaginal exam and elevation of the presenting part to relieve cord
compression. Terbutaline and oxytocin are inappropriate or harmful in
this context, and internal monitoring does not address the acute
emergency.
Question 2
Which laboratory finding best differentiates HELLP syndrome from acute fatty
liver of pregnancy?
A. Elevated serum ammonia with normal platelets
B. Hypoglycemia with markedly elevated transaminases
C. Thrombocytopenia with hemolysis and elevated LDH
D. Elevated bilirubin with prolonged PT/INR
Correct Answer: C - Thrombocytopenia with hemolysis and
Page 2
, elevated LDH
RATIONALE
HELLP syndrome is characterized by hemolysis (elevated LDH,
schistocytes), elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. Acute fatty
liver typically presents with hypoglycemia, coagulopathy, and
elevated ammonia, not the classic hemolysis-thrombocytopenia
pattern.
Question 3
A postpartum client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia has a serum
magnesium level of 8.2 mg/dL, respirations of 11/min, and absent deep tendon
reflexes. Which is the priority nursing action?
A. Continue the infusion and reassess in 30 minutes.
B. Stop the infusion and prepare to administer calcium gluconate.
C. Administer naloxone and increase IV fluids.
D. Decrease the infusion rate by half and notify the provider.
Correct Answer: B - Stop the infusion and prepare to administer
calcium gluconate.
RATIONALE
Magnesium level >8 mg/dL with respiratory depression and loss of
DTRs indicates magnesium toxicity. The infusion must be stopped
immediately and calcium gluconate, the antidote, administered.
Continuing or merely reducing the infusion risks respiratory arrest.
Question 4
A newborn is delivered at 39 weeks via precipitous vaginal delivery. At 1
minute of life, the newborn has a heart rate of 110, slow irregular respirations,
some flexion of extremities, grimace to suctioning, and a pink body with blue
extremities. What is the Apgar score?
A. 5
Page 3
Exam Comprehensive Question Bank
with Complete Practice Exam
Questions, Verified Correct Answers &
HESI OB Maternity Online Practice Exam Comprehensive |
Comprehensive Examination
HESI OB Maternity Online Practice Exam Comprehensive
Question Bank with Complete Practice Exam Questions,
Verified Correct Answers & Detailed Rationales Updated
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for HESI OB Maternity Online Practice Exam
Comprehensive Question Bank with Complete Practice Exam
Questions, Verified Correct Answers & Detailed Rationales
Updated 2026/27. Every item uses a focused exam stem, four
response options, a keyed response, and a clear rationale,
making it easier to understand the subject, spot distractors, and
build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
A laboring client at 6 cm dilation suddenly develops a prolonged deceleration
to 70 bpm lasting 4 minutes. The cervix is unchanged, and the presenting part
is at -1 station. Which action should the nurse anticipate as the priority
intervention?
A. Administer terbutaline subcutaneously and prepare for emergent
cesarean delivery.
B. Perform a sterile vaginal exam to assess for cord prolapse and elevate
the presenting part.
C. Increase oxytocin infusion to augment labor and improve fetal descent.
D. Apply an internal fetal scalp electrode and continue continuous
monitoring.
Correct Answer: B - Perform a sterile vaginal exam to assess for
cord prolapse and elevate the presenting part.
RATIONALE
A prolonged deceleration with unchanged cervical exam and high
station raises concern for umbilical cord prolapse, requiring immediate
vaginal exam and elevation of the presenting part to relieve cord
compression. Terbutaline and oxytocin are inappropriate or harmful in
this context, and internal monitoring does not address the acute
emergency.
Question 2
Which laboratory finding best differentiates HELLP syndrome from acute fatty
liver of pregnancy?
A. Elevated serum ammonia with normal platelets
B. Hypoglycemia with markedly elevated transaminases
C. Thrombocytopenia with hemolysis and elevated LDH
D. Elevated bilirubin with prolonged PT/INR
Correct Answer: C - Thrombocytopenia with hemolysis and
Page 2
, elevated LDH
RATIONALE
HELLP syndrome is characterized by hemolysis (elevated LDH,
schistocytes), elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. Acute fatty
liver typically presents with hypoglycemia, coagulopathy, and
elevated ammonia, not the classic hemolysis-thrombocytopenia
pattern.
Question 3
A postpartum client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia has a serum
magnesium level of 8.2 mg/dL, respirations of 11/min, and absent deep tendon
reflexes. Which is the priority nursing action?
A. Continue the infusion and reassess in 30 minutes.
B. Stop the infusion and prepare to administer calcium gluconate.
C. Administer naloxone and increase IV fluids.
D. Decrease the infusion rate by half and notify the provider.
Correct Answer: B - Stop the infusion and prepare to administer
calcium gluconate.
RATIONALE
Magnesium level >8 mg/dL with respiratory depression and loss of
DTRs indicates magnesium toxicity. The infusion must be stopped
immediately and calcium gluconate, the antidote, administered.
Continuing or merely reducing the infusion risks respiratory arrest.
Question 4
A newborn is delivered at 39 weeks via precipitous vaginal delivery. At 1
minute of life, the newborn has a heart rate of 110, slow irregular respirations,
some flexion of extremities, grimace to suctioning, and a pink body with blue
extremities. What is the Apgar score?
A. 5
Page 3
