HESI EXIT V2 EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED 2026-2027!! | Verified
Questions
HESI EXIT V2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT |
Comprehensive Examination
HESI EXIT V2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED 2026-2027!! actual exam
preparation document with verified questions, complete
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for HESI EXIT V2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED 2026-2027!!. Every
item uses a focused exam stem, four response options, a keyed
response, and a clear rationale, making it easier to understand
the subject, spot distractors, and build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
A client receiving continuous IV heparin for venous thromboembolism has an
aPTT of 98 seconds (control 30 seconds) and new hematuria. Which action
should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer vitamin K 10 mg IV push.
B. Hold the heparin infusion and prepare protamine sulfate.
C. Increase the heparin rate to maintain therapeutic aPTT.
D. Continue the infusion and monitor urine output.
Correct Answer: B - Hold the heparin infusion and prepare
protamine sulfate.
RATIONALE
An aPTT >2.5 times control plus bleeding indicates supratherapeutic
anticoagulation; heparin must be held and protamine sulfate (its
antidote) prepared. Vitamin K reverses warfarin, not heparin;
increasing the rate worsens bleeding; continuing the infusion ignores
active hemorrhage.
Question 2
Which assessment finding most strongly indicates that a client with a T4 spinal
cord injury is developing autonomic dysreflexia?
A. Bradycardia with severe hypertension and pounding headache
B. Tachycardia with hypotension and warm, dry skin
C. Flaccid paralysis with hyporeflexia below the injury
D. Hyperthermia with absent bowel sounds
Correct Answer: A - Bradycardia with severe hypertension and
pounding headache
Page 2
, RATIONALE
Autonomic dysreflexia above T6 produces unopposed sympathetic
outflow: severe hypertension, bradycardia, and pounding headache
from a noxious stimulus (often bladder distention). Options B and C
describe spinal shock; D is unrelated to dysreflexia.
Question 3
A laboring client at 38 weeks has sudden onset of intense abdominal pain, dark
red vaginal bleeding, and a rigid, board-like uterus. Fetal heart tones are 90
bpm. Which is the priority nursing action?
A. Prepare for immediate cesarean delivery.
B. Perform a sterile vaginal exam to assess dilation.
C. Administer terbutaline to relax the uterus.
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter and monitor output.
Correct Answer: A - Prepare for immediate cesarean delivery.
RATIONALE
Findings indicate placental abruption with fetal bradycardia; the
priority is expedited delivery via cesarean. Vaginal exam is
contraindicated with active bleeding; terbutaline is contraindicated in
abruption; catheter insertion is secondary to fetal/ maternal
stabilization.
Question 4
A client with major depressive disorder has been taking sertraline for 5 weeks
and reports new-onset agitation, diaphoresis, and muscle rigidity. Vital signs: T
38.9°C, HR 118, BP 160/90. Which complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. Anticholinergic toxicity
D. Acute dystonic reaction
Page 3
, Correct Answer: A - Serotonin syndrome
RATIONALE
Serotonin syndrome presents with mental status changes, autonomic
instability, and neuromuscular rigidity after serotonergic agents. NMS
occurs with antipsychotics and typically has lead-pipe rigidity and
slower onset; anticholinergic toxicity causes dry skin and no rigidity;
dystonia causes spasms without fever.
Question 5
Which action by a newly licensed nurse requires immediate intervention by the
charge nurse?
A. Delegating vital signs on a stable client to a nursing assistant
B. Asking a UAP to administer a tube feeding to a client with a new PEG
tube
C. Requesting a respiratory therapist to perform chest physiotherapy
D. Consulting the pharmacist about a medication interaction
Correct Answer: B - Asking a UAP to administer a tube feeding
to a client with a new PEG tube
RATIONALE
Administering a tube feeding requires nursing judgment and
assessment; it cannot be delegated to a UAP. Vital signs on stable
clients, respiratory therapy, and pharmacist consultation are
appropriate delegated or collaborative tasks.
Question 6
A community health nurse is planning an outbreak investigation for a
suspected foodborne illness at a local fair. Which step should be performed
first?
A. Establish the existence of an outbreak by comparing current incidence
to baseline.
Page 4
AND CORRECT ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED 2026-2027!! | Verified
Questions
HESI EXIT V2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT |
Comprehensive Examination
HESI EXIT V2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED 2026-2027!! actual exam
preparation document with verified questions, complete
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for HESI EXIT V2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED 2026-2027!!. Every
item uses a focused exam stem, four response options, a keyed
response, and a clear rationale, making it easier to understand
the subject, spot distractors, and build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
A client receiving continuous IV heparin for venous thromboembolism has an
aPTT of 98 seconds (control 30 seconds) and new hematuria. Which action
should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer vitamin K 10 mg IV push.
B. Hold the heparin infusion and prepare protamine sulfate.
C. Increase the heparin rate to maintain therapeutic aPTT.
D. Continue the infusion and monitor urine output.
Correct Answer: B - Hold the heparin infusion and prepare
protamine sulfate.
RATIONALE
An aPTT >2.5 times control plus bleeding indicates supratherapeutic
anticoagulation; heparin must be held and protamine sulfate (its
antidote) prepared. Vitamin K reverses warfarin, not heparin;
increasing the rate worsens bleeding; continuing the infusion ignores
active hemorrhage.
Question 2
Which assessment finding most strongly indicates that a client with a T4 spinal
cord injury is developing autonomic dysreflexia?
A. Bradycardia with severe hypertension and pounding headache
B. Tachycardia with hypotension and warm, dry skin
C. Flaccid paralysis with hyporeflexia below the injury
D. Hyperthermia with absent bowel sounds
Correct Answer: A - Bradycardia with severe hypertension and
pounding headache
Page 2
, RATIONALE
Autonomic dysreflexia above T6 produces unopposed sympathetic
outflow: severe hypertension, bradycardia, and pounding headache
from a noxious stimulus (often bladder distention). Options B and C
describe spinal shock; D is unrelated to dysreflexia.
Question 3
A laboring client at 38 weeks has sudden onset of intense abdominal pain, dark
red vaginal bleeding, and a rigid, board-like uterus. Fetal heart tones are 90
bpm. Which is the priority nursing action?
A. Prepare for immediate cesarean delivery.
B. Perform a sterile vaginal exam to assess dilation.
C. Administer terbutaline to relax the uterus.
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter and monitor output.
Correct Answer: A - Prepare for immediate cesarean delivery.
RATIONALE
Findings indicate placental abruption with fetal bradycardia; the
priority is expedited delivery via cesarean. Vaginal exam is
contraindicated with active bleeding; terbutaline is contraindicated in
abruption; catheter insertion is secondary to fetal/ maternal
stabilization.
Question 4
A client with major depressive disorder has been taking sertraline for 5 weeks
and reports new-onset agitation, diaphoresis, and muscle rigidity. Vital signs: T
38.9°C, HR 118, BP 160/90. Which complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. Anticholinergic toxicity
D. Acute dystonic reaction
Page 3
, Correct Answer: A - Serotonin syndrome
RATIONALE
Serotonin syndrome presents with mental status changes, autonomic
instability, and neuromuscular rigidity after serotonergic agents. NMS
occurs with antipsychotics and typically has lead-pipe rigidity and
slower onset; anticholinergic toxicity causes dry skin and no rigidity;
dystonia causes spasms without fever.
Question 5
Which action by a newly licensed nurse requires immediate intervention by the
charge nurse?
A. Delegating vital signs on a stable client to a nursing assistant
B. Asking a UAP to administer a tube feeding to a client with a new PEG
tube
C. Requesting a respiratory therapist to perform chest physiotherapy
D. Consulting the pharmacist about a medication interaction
Correct Answer: B - Asking a UAP to administer a tube feeding
to a client with a new PEG tube
RATIONALE
Administering a tube feeding requires nursing judgment and
assessment; it cannot be delegated to a UAP. Vital signs on stable
clients, respiratory therapy, and pharmacist consultation are
appropriate delegated or collaborative tasks.
Question 6
A community health nurse is planning an outbreak investigation for a
suspected foodborne illness at a local fair. Which step should be performed
first?
A. Establish the existence of an outbreak by comparing current incidence
to baseline.
Page 4
