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Nsg 3160 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 1 Questions And Answers And Explanations

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Nsg 3160 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 1 Questions And Answers And Explanations

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NSG 3160 ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 1
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS AND
EXPLANATIONS




1. A patient with chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) undergoes an endoscopy,

which reveals that the stratified squamous epithelium of the esophagus has been replaced by

columnar epithelium. This cellular adaptation is best described as:

A. Metaplasia


B. Hyperplasia


C. Dysplasia


D. Atrophy


Answer: A


Conceptual Explanation: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one adult cell type

by another adult cell type, often as a response to chronic irritation.


2. Which mechanism is primarily responsible for the cellular swelling seen in hypoxic injury?

A. Failure of the sodium-potassium pump due to ATP depletion

,B. Increased intracellular calcium leading to enzyme activation


C. Lactic acid accumulation causing protein denaturation


D. Ribosomal detachment and decreased protein synthesis


Answer: A


Conceptual Explanation: Hypoxia leads to ATP depletion, which causes the Na+/K+ pump

to fail. Sodium enters the cell, followed by water, resulting in cellular swelling.


3. During an inflammatory response, which chemical mediator is primarily responsible for

inducing pain and increasing vascular permeability?

A. Leukotrienes


B. Interleukin-1


C. Prostaglandins


D. Tumor Necrosis Factor


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: Prostaglandins are involved in inducing pain by sensitizing

nociceptors and also contribute to vasodilation and increased permeability.


4. A patient presents with a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which ECG change is most

characteristic of this electrolyte imbalance?

A. Prominent U waves


B. Prolonged QT interval

, C. Flattened ST segment


D. Peaked T waves


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Hyperkalemia (K+ > 5.0 mEq/L) typically manifests on an ECG

as narrow, peaked T waves due to faster repolarization.


5. Which of the following processes involves the programmed cell death of specific cells

without triggering an inflammatory response?

A. Liquefactive necrosis


B. Coagulative necrosis


C. Caseous necrosis


D. Apoptosis


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Apoptosis is a regulated, programmed cell death process that

clears cells without rupturing the plasma membrane, thus avoiding inflammation.


6. An arterial blood gas (ABG) report shows: pH 7.30, PaCO2 55 mmHg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L.

How should this be interpreted?

A. Respiratory Acidosis


B. Respiratory Alkalosis


C. Metabolic Acidosis

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