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HESI Med-Surg Exam (Latest 2026 Update) GRADED A+ | 86 Questions with Answers and Rationales | Medical-Surgical Nursing HESI Exam Study Guide

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HESI Med-Surg Exam (Latest 2026 Update): 86 Practice Questions with Answers & Rationales – Medical-Surgical Nursing HESI Exam Study Guide Description Prepare for the HESI Med-Surg Exam and NCLEX with this comprehensive set of 86 high-yield medical-surgical nursing practice questions covering the most commonly tested topics on nursing board exams. This reviewer includes multiple-choice and select-all-that-apply questions with correct answers and detailed rationales to help you understand the "why" behind each answer — not just memorize facts. Topics Covered Neurological Disorders – Guillain-Barré syndrome, respiratory assessment, ascending paralysis, traumatic brain injury, cerebrospinal fluid leak, meningitis risk, Battle's sign, hemorrhagic stroke, Valsalva maneuver, increased intracranial pressure, right-sided hemiplegia, positioning after stroke, diabetes insipidus, polydipsia, pituitary gland damage, hypothalamus damage, ADH production, head trauma Cardiovascular Disorders – Atrial fibrillation, pulse deficit, anticoagulation therapy, cardioembolic events, myocardial infarction, jaw pain, indigestion, troponin levels, CK-MB, acute coronary syndrome, PTCA, restenosis, stent thrombosis, nitroglycerin, cardiogenic shock, pulmonary congestion, heart failure, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, pulmonary edema, digoxin, digoxin toxicity, pacemaker, synchronous pacemaker, CABG, hypokalemia, dysrhythmias, ECG changes, ST-segment elevation, NSTEMI, STEMI Respiratory Disorders – Thoracentesis, pneumothorax, chest tube removal, subcutaneous emphysema, air leak, endotracheal tube, end-tidal CO2 detector, tension pneumothorax, mediastinal shift, emphysema, pursed lip breathing, CO2 elimination, tuberculosis, combination drug regimen, resistant strains, asthma, acute asthma exacerbation, wheezing, bronchodilators, bronchoscopy, blood-tinged sputum, NPO status, gag reflex, ARDS, mechanical ventilation, PEEP, barotrauma, oxygen toxicity, ventilator-associated pneumonia, VAP bundle, endotracheal intubation, extubation, weaning, spontaneous breathing trial, BiPAP, obstructive sleep apnea Gastrointestinal Disorders – Stomatitis, dysphagia, airway obstruction, esophageal varices, hemodynamic stability, EGD, nasogastric tube, liver biopsy, bleeding, peptic ulcer disease, hematemesis, gastric pain, vagal stimulation, hydrochloric acid, parietal cells, acute pancreatitis, amylase, small bowel obstruction, electrolytes, dumping syndrome, PEG tube, gastrostomy tube, UGI series, barium, proctosigmoidoscopy, colonoscopy, perforation, peritonitis, gastroenteritis, appendicitis, asterixis, hepatic encephalopathy, colostomy, stoma, inguinal herniorrhaphy, bladder distention, CEA, carcinoembryonic antigen, ostomy care Renal and Genitourinary Disorders – Diabetic nephropathy, renal calculi, acute pain, urinary elimination, urinary stasis, urinalysis, specific gravity, PSA density, prostatitis, prostatic stent, TURP, urinary catheter, blood clots, sterile irrigation, chronic prostatitis, self-catheterization, Credé maneuver, nephrostomy tube, ureteral stent, continuous bladder irrigation, bladder scan, post-void residual, Kegel exercises Musculoskeletal Disorders – Fractured pelvis, fat embolism, incomplete fracture, humerus, osteoarthritis, naproxen, NSAID, gastrointestinal side effects, low impact exercise, rheumatoid arthritis, piroxicam, prostaglandin synthesis, osteoporosis, weight resistance exercises, osteomyelitis, surgical debridement, parenteral antibiotics, oral antibiotics, bone infection, Staphylococcus aureus, MRSA, vancomycin Endocrine Disorders – Type 1 diabetes mellitus, adjusted dose of insulin, sliding scale, type 2 diabetes mellitus, dysuria, fingerstick glucose, hypoglycemia, diabetes insipidus, polydipsia, thyroid-stimulating hormone, TSH, thyroxine secretion, metabolic rate, diabetes management, insulin administration, blood glucose monitoring, foot care, oral hypoglycemic agents, metformin, insulin glargine, insulin aspart, insulin lispro, HbA1c, diabetic ketoacidosis, DKA, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, HHS, Somogyi effect, dawn phenomenon Reproductive and Women's Health – Ectopic pregnancy, shoulder pain, premenstrual syndrome, PMS, heart palpitations, endometrial cancer, total hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, mastectomy, breast cancer, support group, infertility, human papillomavirus, HPV, genital herpes simplex, syphilis, sexually transmitted infection, STI, cervical cancer, atrophic vaginitis, candidiasis, nystatin, primary dysmenorrhea, ibuprofen, oral contraceptives, emergency contraception Male Reproductive Health – Sickle cell anemia, priapism, orchiectomy, testicular cancer, testicular self-examination, TSE, chronic prostatitis, PSA, prostatic stent, TURP, benign prostatic hyperplasia, BPH, prostatectomy, prostate cancer, Gleason score, brachytherapy, hormone therapy, chemotherapy Sexually Transmitted Infections – Gonorrhea, penile discharge, HPV, genital herpes, syphilis, STI prevention, safe sex practices, condom use, HPV vaccine, Gardasil, partner notification, expedited partner therapy Cancer and Oncology – Sarcoidosis, superior vena cava syndrome, metastatic cancer, PET scan, positron emission tomography, chemotherapy, pleurodesis, puerodesis, lung cancer, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, thrombocytopenia, occult bleeding Perfect For HESI Exit Exam takers NCLEX-RN and NCLEX-PN candidates Medical-surgical nursing students Nursing students in med-surg rotations PNLE reviewers ATI and nursing exit exam preparation Quick review and last-minute cramming Clinical instructors and nursing review centers What You Get 86 multiple-choice and select-all-that-apply questions Correct answers clearly marked Detailed rationales for every question Priority nursing interventions explained Test-taking strategies for choosing the BEST answer Medical-surgical nursing coverage across all body systems

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HESI Med-Surg Exam (Latest 2026
Update) Practice Questions and
Answers

1. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to
perform on a client who is hospitalized for Guillain-Barré
syndrome that is rapidly progressing?
A. Respiratory effort.
B. Unsteady gait.
C. Intensity of pain.
D. Ability to eat.
Answer: A. Respiratory effort.
Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome causes paralysis or
weakness that typically starts at the feet and progresses
upwards. As the condition progresses, the nurse must
ensure that the client is able to breathe effectively.
Reference: Heuther, Understanding Pathophysiology, 6th ed.
p. 412




2. A male client comes into the clinic with a history of penile
discharge with painful, burning urination. Which action
should the nurse implement?
A. Collect a culture of the penile discharge.
B. Palpate the inguinal lymph nodes gently.
C. Observe for scrotal swelling and redness.
D. Express the discharge to determine color.
Answer: A. Collect a culture of the penile discharge.
Rationale: Penile discharge with painful urination is
commonly associated with gonorrhea. The nurse should
collect a culture of the penile discharge to determine the
cause of these symptoms. The cause must be determined or
confirmed through culture to identify the organism and
ensure effective treatment.
Reference: Jarvis Physical Examination and Health
Assessment, 6th edition




1

,3. A client with history of atrial fibrillation is admitted to the
telemetry unit with sudden onset of shortness of breath.
The nurse observes a new irregular heart rhythm and should
perform which assessment at this time?
A. Check for a pulse deficit.
B. Palpate the apical impulse.
C. Inspect jugular vein pulse.
D. Examine for a carotid bruit.
Answer: A. Check for a pulse deficit.
Rationale: A client with a past history of atrial fibrillation
may return to that rhythm. Any signs of atrial fibrillation,
such as sudden onset shortness of breath, requires further
investigation. The nurse should assess this client for a pulse
deficit because this condition occurs with atrial fibrillation.




4. Which client should be further assessed for an ectopic
pregnancy?
A. A 24-year-old with shoulder and lower abdominal quadrant pain.
B. A 33-year-old with intermittent lower abdominal cramping.
C. A 20-year-old with fever and right lower abdominal colic.
D. A 40-year-old with jaundice and right lower abdominal pain.
Answer: A. A 24-year-old with shoulder and lower abdominal
quadrant pain.
Rationale: A 24-year-old with sudden onset of lower
abdominal quadrant pain should be assessed for an ectopic
pregnancy. The pain can also be referred to the shoulder
and may be associated with vaginal bleeding.
Reference: Health Assessment for Nursing Practice, Wilson
and Giddens, p. 269




5. Which dietary assessment finding is most important for
the nurse to address when caring for a client with diabetic
nephropathy?
A. Drinks a six pack of beer every day.
B. Enjoys a hamburger once a month.
C. Eats fortified breakfast cereal daily.
D. Consumes beans and rice every day.
Answer: A. Drinks a six pack of beer every day.



2

,Rationale: Drinking six beers every day is the dietary
assessment finding most important for the nurse to address
when caring for a client with diabetic nephropathy. The
usual can of beer is 12 ounces (355 mL). Clients with
diabetes are recommended to drink no more than 12 ounces
of beer per day because beer contains carbohydrates that
can create unhealthy fluctuations in blood glucose and
promote poor glucose control. Nephropathy is exacerbated
by poor blood glucose control.




6. Which assessment finding is of greatest concern to the
nurse who is caring for a client with stomatitis?
A. Cough brought on by swallowing.
B. Sore throat caused by speaking.
C. Painful and dry oral cavity.
D. Unintended weight loss.
Answer: A. Cough brought on by swallowing.
Rationale: A cough brought on by swallowing is a sign of
dysphagia, which is a finding of particular concern in a client
with stomatitis. Dysphagia can cause numerous problems,
including airway obstruction, and should be reported to the
healthcare provider immediately.
Reference: Ignatavicius, (2016). Medical-surgical nursing:
Patient-centered collaborative care, eighth edition, Ch. 53,
p. 1100.




7. The nurse is teaching a client diagnosed with peripheral
arterial disease. Which genitourinary system complication
should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Altered sexual response.
B. Sterility.
C. Urinary incontinence.
D. Decreased pelvic muscle tone.
Answer: A. Altered sexual response.
Rationale: Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a
cardiovascular condition characterized by narrowing of the
arteries and reduced blood flow to the extremities. PAD is
known to alter the blood flow to the male's penis and is
associated with erectile dysfunction in men.




3

, Reference: Ignatavicius., (2016). Medical-surgical nursing:
Patient-centered collaborative care, eighth edition, Ch. 69,
p. 1452.




8. A 40-year-old female client has a history of smoking.
Which finding should the nurse identify as a risk factor for
myocardial infarction?
A. Oral contraceptives.
B. Senile osteopenia.
C. Levothyroxine therapy.
D. Pernicious anemia.
Answer: A. Oral contraceptives.
Rationale: Women older than 35 years old who smoke and
take oral contraceptives have an increased risk of
myocardial infarction or stroke.
Reference: Ignatavicius, (2013). Medical-surgical nursing:
Patient-centered collaborative care, 7th ed., Ch. 35, p. 694.




9. A client has been told that there is cataract formation
over both eyes. Which finding should the nurse expect when
assessing the client?
A. Decreased color perception.
B. Presence of floaters.
C. Loss of central vision.
D. Reduced peripheral vision.
Answer: A. Decreased color perception.
Rationale: Decreased color perception occurs with cataract
formation. Cataract formation is also associated with blurred
vision and a global loss of vision so gradual that the client
may not be aware of it.
Reference: Ignatavicius, (2016). Medical-surgical nursing:
Patient-centered collaborative care, eighth edition, Ch. 47.




10. Which assessment finding should most concern the
nurse who is monitoring a client two hours after a
thoracentesis?



4

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