RASMUSSEN UNIVERSITY
Pharmacology
NUR 2407 — Exams 1-2 & Final
Pharmacology
INSTITUTION | Rasmussen University
PROGRAM | Bachelor of Science in Nursing
EXAM TITLE | NUR 2407 Pharmacology Examinations 1-2 & Final Study Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE | Pharmacology
COURSE CODE | NUR 2407
ACADEMIC YEAR | 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS | 450 Questions
NUR 2407 | 2026/2027
NUR 2407 Pharmacology Examinations 1-2 & Final Study Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,INTRODUCTION
This comprehensive document contains 450 original verified questions covering the full NUR 2407 Pharmacology
Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle for the 2026/2027 academic year. The questions are distributed across three
core domains: Domain 1: Exam 1 - Pharmacological Principles & Foundations (150 questions); Domain 2: Exam 2
- Drug Classifications & Therapeutic Applications (150 questions); and Domain 3: Final Exam - Integrated
Pharmacology & Clinical Judgment (150 questions). Content is original and designed to reinforce the official NUR
2407 course objectives for actual exam readiness and pharmacologic proficiency, aligned to the 2026/2027
academic year. Questions integrate pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic principles, drug classifications,
adverse effects, and clinical judgment to support professional nursing candidates in developing safe medication
competence.
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Exam 1 - Pharmacological Principles & Foundations
Question 1. Pharmacokinetics includes which processes?
A. Only adverse effects
B. Only receptor binding
C. Only therapeutic effect
D. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: ADME describes the movement of drugs through the body.
Question 2. The first-pass effect refers to:
A. Enhanced absorption in the stomach
B. Metabolism of an orally administered drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation
C. Increased bioavailability of all oral drugs
D. No effect on drug levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hepatic first-pass metabolism reduces bioavailability of many oral drugs.
Question 3. A drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires:
A. Only once-daily dosing without assessment
B. No monitoring
C. Careful monitoring of blood levels and clinical response
D. Unlimited dose increases
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Narrow therapeutic index drugs have a small margin between effective and toxic doses.
Question 4. The rights of medication administration include:
A. Only right drug and right dose
B. Right client, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation
C. Only right client
D. No specific rights
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The rights form the foundation of safe medication administration.
Question 5. High-alert medications require:
A. Only verbal confirmation
B. No special precautions
C. Independent double-check by two nurses before administration
D. Administration by any staff member
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Independent double-checks reduce errors with high-alert drugs.
NUR 2407 Pharmacology Examinations 1-2 & Final Study Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,Question 6. Which insulin can be given intravenously?
A. Regular insulin
B. NPH insulin
C. Insulin glargine
D. Insulin detemir
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Regular insulin is the only insulin routinely given IV.
Question 7. Potassium chloride for intravenous use must be:
A. Mixed with any fluid without restriction
B. Given as rapid IV push
C. Diluted and infused via a pump; never given as IV push
D. Administered intramuscularly
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Concentrated potassium is a high-alert drug that must never be pushed.
Question 8. The antidote for opioid-induced respiratory depression is:
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Vitamin K
D. Protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone is the opioid receptor antagonist used for reversal.
Question 9. The antidote for warfarin is:
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Vitamin K
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vitamin K supports clotting factor synthesis and reverses warfarin.
Question 10. The antidote for heparin is:
A. Naloxone
B. Vitamin K
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Protamine binds heparin and neutralizes its effect.
Question 11. Digoxin should be held if the apical pulse is:
A. Less than 60 beats per minute in an adult
B. Greater than 100 beats per minute
C. Between 60 and 100
D. Any rate is acceptable
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a sign of digoxin effect and possible toxicity.
Question 12. Hypokalemia increases the risk of:
A. No drug interactions
B. Digoxin toxicity
C. Only hypernatremia
D. Only hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: B
NUR 2407 Pharmacology Examinations 1-2 & Final Study Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, Rationale: Low potassium potentiates digoxin toxicity.
Question 13. Metformin should be held before procedures involving iodinated contrast because of
the risk of:
A. Hypertension
B. Hypoglycemia only
C. Lactic acidosis
D. No specific risk
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Contrast can impair renal function and increase lactic acidosis risk with metformin.
Question 14. Levothyroxine is best administered:
A. Only intravenously
B. With a large meal
C. At bedtime with food only
D. On an empty stomach 30 to 60 minutes before breakfast
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Food and other medications can reduce absorption of levothyroxine.
Question 15. Phenytoin therapeutic range is approximately:
A. 50 to 100 mcg/mL
B. 1 to 5 mcg/mL
C. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
D. 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Therapeutic phenytoin levels are typically 10-20 mcg/mL.
Question 16. A common adverse effect of phenytoin is:
A. Only weight gain
B. Gingival hyperplasia
C. Only bradycardia
D. No oral effects
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a classic long-term effect of phenytoin.
Question 17. Morphine can cause respiratory depression. The nurse should monitor for a
respiratory rate below:
A. 12 breaths per minute
B. 20 breaths per minute
C. 30 breaths per minute
D. 8 is never a concern
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Respiratory rate below 12 often prompts holding the opioid and notifying the provider.
Question 18. Prednisone should not be stopped abruptly because of the risk of:
A. Only mild fatigue
B. Adrenal crisis from hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression
C. Hyperglycemia only
D. No withdrawal risk
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chronic corticosteroid use suppresses endogenous cortisol production.
Question 19. Albuterol is a:
A. Inhaled corticosteroid only
B. Long-acting anticholinergic only
NUR 2407 Pharmacology Examinations 1-2 & Final Study Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Pharmacology
NUR 2407 — Exams 1-2 & Final
Pharmacology
INSTITUTION | Rasmussen University
PROGRAM | Bachelor of Science in Nursing
EXAM TITLE | NUR 2407 Pharmacology Examinations 1-2 & Final Study Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE | Pharmacology
COURSE CODE | NUR 2407
ACADEMIC YEAR | 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS | 450 Questions
NUR 2407 | 2026/2027
NUR 2407 Pharmacology Examinations 1-2 & Final Study Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,INTRODUCTION
This comprehensive document contains 450 original verified questions covering the full NUR 2407 Pharmacology
Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle for the 2026/2027 academic year. The questions are distributed across three
core domains: Domain 1: Exam 1 - Pharmacological Principles & Foundations (150 questions); Domain 2: Exam 2
- Drug Classifications & Therapeutic Applications (150 questions); and Domain 3: Final Exam - Integrated
Pharmacology & Clinical Judgment (150 questions). Content is original and designed to reinforce the official NUR
2407 course objectives for actual exam readiness and pharmacologic proficiency, aligned to the 2026/2027
academic year. Questions integrate pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic principles, drug classifications,
adverse effects, and clinical judgment to support professional nursing candidates in developing safe medication
competence.
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Exam 1 - Pharmacological Principles & Foundations
Question 1. Pharmacokinetics includes which processes?
A. Only adverse effects
B. Only receptor binding
C. Only therapeutic effect
D. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: ADME describes the movement of drugs through the body.
Question 2. The first-pass effect refers to:
A. Enhanced absorption in the stomach
B. Metabolism of an orally administered drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation
C. Increased bioavailability of all oral drugs
D. No effect on drug levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hepatic first-pass metabolism reduces bioavailability of many oral drugs.
Question 3. A drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires:
A. Only once-daily dosing without assessment
B. No monitoring
C. Careful monitoring of blood levels and clinical response
D. Unlimited dose increases
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Narrow therapeutic index drugs have a small margin between effective and toxic doses.
Question 4. The rights of medication administration include:
A. Only right drug and right dose
B. Right client, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation
C. Only right client
D. No specific rights
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The rights form the foundation of safe medication administration.
Question 5. High-alert medications require:
A. Only verbal confirmation
B. No special precautions
C. Independent double-check by two nurses before administration
D. Administration by any staff member
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Independent double-checks reduce errors with high-alert drugs.
NUR 2407 Pharmacology Examinations 1-2 & Final Study Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,Question 6. Which insulin can be given intravenously?
A. Regular insulin
B. NPH insulin
C. Insulin glargine
D. Insulin detemir
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Regular insulin is the only insulin routinely given IV.
Question 7. Potassium chloride for intravenous use must be:
A. Mixed with any fluid without restriction
B. Given as rapid IV push
C. Diluted and infused via a pump; never given as IV push
D. Administered intramuscularly
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Concentrated potassium is a high-alert drug that must never be pushed.
Question 8. The antidote for opioid-induced respiratory depression is:
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Vitamin K
D. Protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone is the opioid receptor antagonist used for reversal.
Question 9. The antidote for warfarin is:
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Vitamin K
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vitamin K supports clotting factor synthesis and reverses warfarin.
Question 10. The antidote for heparin is:
A. Naloxone
B. Vitamin K
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Protamine binds heparin and neutralizes its effect.
Question 11. Digoxin should be held if the apical pulse is:
A. Less than 60 beats per minute in an adult
B. Greater than 100 beats per minute
C. Between 60 and 100
D. Any rate is acceptable
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a sign of digoxin effect and possible toxicity.
Question 12. Hypokalemia increases the risk of:
A. No drug interactions
B. Digoxin toxicity
C. Only hypernatremia
D. Only hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: B
NUR 2407 Pharmacology Examinations 1-2 & Final Study Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, Rationale: Low potassium potentiates digoxin toxicity.
Question 13. Metformin should be held before procedures involving iodinated contrast because of
the risk of:
A. Hypertension
B. Hypoglycemia only
C. Lactic acidosis
D. No specific risk
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Contrast can impair renal function and increase lactic acidosis risk with metformin.
Question 14. Levothyroxine is best administered:
A. Only intravenously
B. With a large meal
C. At bedtime with food only
D. On an empty stomach 30 to 60 minutes before breakfast
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Food and other medications can reduce absorption of levothyroxine.
Question 15. Phenytoin therapeutic range is approximately:
A. 50 to 100 mcg/mL
B. 1 to 5 mcg/mL
C. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
D. 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Therapeutic phenytoin levels are typically 10-20 mcg/mL.
Question 16. A common adverse effect of phenytoin is:
A. Only weight gain
B. Gingival hyperplasia
C. Only bradycardia
D. No oral effects
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a classic long-term effect of phenytoin.
Question 17. Morphine can cause respiratory depression. The nurse should monitor for a
respiratory rate below:
A. 12 breaths per minute
B. 20 breaths per minute
C. 30 breaths per minute
D. 8 is never a concern
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Respiratory rate below 12 often prompts holding the opioid and notifying the provider.
Question 18. Prednisone should not be stopped abruptly because of the risk of:
A. Only mild fatigue
B. Adrenal crisis from hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression
C. Hyperglycemia only
D. No withdrawal risk
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chronic corticosteroid use suppresses endogenous cortisol production.
Question 19. Albuterol is a:
A. Inhaled corticosteroid only
B. Long-acting anticholinergic only
NUR 2407 Pharmacology Examinations 1-2 & Final Study Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
