RASMUSSEN UNIVERSITY
Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
NUR 2502 — Exam 3
Multidimensional Care III
INSTITUTION Rasmussen University
PROGRAM Bachelor of Science in Nursing
EXAM TITLE NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 3 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
COURSE CODE NUR 2502
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS 150 Questions
NUR 2502 | 2026/2027
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 3 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,INTRODUCTION
This document contains 150 original verified questions that comprehensively address the full NUR 2502
Examination 3 for the 2026/2027 academic year. The questions are organized across five core domains aligned
with the official Rasmussen University Multidimensional Care III curriculum: Domain 1 – Gastrointestinal
Disorders & Management; Domain 2 – Endocrine Disorders & Management; Domain 3 – Neurological Disorders;
Domain 4 – Hematologic & Oncologic Disorders; and Domain 5 – Integrated Clinical Judgment & Prioritization.
Content is original and designed to reinforce the official NUR 2502 course objectives for actual exam readiness
and multidimensional care proficiency for professional nursing candidates.
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Gastrointestinal Disorders & Management
Question 1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed a proton-pump inhibitor. The nurse
teaches that the primary action of this medication is to:
A. Decrease gastric acid secretion by inhibiting the proton pump in parietal cells
B. Neutralize existing stomach acid immediately
C. Increase mucus production only
D. Stimulate gastric motility
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Proton-pump inhibitors block the H+/K+-ATPase enzyme, markedly reducing acid production and
promoting ulcer healing.
Question 2. Which assessment finding is most consistent with a perforated peptic ulcer?
A. Mild epigastric discomfort relieved by food
B. Sudden severe abdominal pain, board-like rigidity, and signs of peritonitis
C. Gradual onset of diarrhea without pain
D. Isolated nausea without abdominal findings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Perforation allows gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity, producing chemical peritonitis with
acute, severe pain and abdominal rigidity.
Question 3. A client with cirrhosis develops ascites. The nurse anticipates which dietary
restriction?
A. Sodium restriction to reduce fluid retention
B. High sodium to improve volume
C. Unrestricted fluid and sodium
D. High protein without other limits
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sodium restriction limits fluid retention in the setting of portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia
that drive ascites formation.
Question 4. Which laboratory finding is most characteristic of acute pancreatitis?
A. Decreased liver enzymes only
B. Elevated serum amylase and lipase
C. Isolated hyperkalemia
D. Low bilirubin with normal enzymes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pancreatic enzyme leakage into the circulation produces characteristic elevations of amylase and
lipase, supporting the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis.
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 3 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,Question 5. A client with ulcerative colitis is at highest risk for which complication during an
acute flare?
A. Only mild constipation
B. Isolated peptic ulcer formation
C. Toxic megacolon and severe fluid/electrolyte imbalance
D. Acute cholecystitis exclusively
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe inflammation can lead to colonic dilation (toxic megacolon) and profound fluid, electrolyte,
and blood loss.
Question 6. Which intervention is the priority for a client with acute upper gastrointestinal
bleeding?
A. Immediate discharge teaching
B. Encouraging oral intake of large volumes
C. Delaying all interventions until laboratory results return
D. Airway protection, oxygen, and volume resuscitation while preparing for urgent endoscopy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hemodynamic stability and airway protection take precedence; endoscopy both diagnoses and can
therapeutically control the bleeding source.
Question 7. A client with Crohn disease is most likely to have inflammation involving:
A. Any segment of the GI tract with transmural, discontinuous (skip) lesions
B. Continuous mucosal inflammation limited to the colon and rectum
C. Only the esophagus
D. Exclusive involvement of the stomach
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Crohn disease can affect any portion of the GI tract from mouth to anus and produces transmural
inflammation with skip lesions, in contrast to ulcerative colitis.
Question 8. Which finding indicates that a client with a nasogastric tube to suction is developing a
metabolic acid–base disturbance?
A. Respiratory acidosis only
B. Metabolic alkalosis from loss of gastric acid
C. Metabolic acidosis from bicarbonate loss
D. No acid–base change is possible
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prolonged nasogastric suction removes hydrochloric acid, generating a metabolic alkalosis that
requires monitoring and electrolyte replacement.
Question 9. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is prescribed lactulose. The nurse understands
that the medication works by:
A. Increasing ammonia production
B. Acting as a direct CNS stimulant
C. Acidifying the colon and promoting excretion of ammonia in the stool
D. Replacing deficient clotting factors
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lactulose lowers colonic pH, converting ammonia to non-absorbable ammonium and increasing
fecal nitrogen excretion, thereby reducing blood ammonia.
Question 10. Which symptom is classic for cholecystitis?
A. Left-lower-quadrant pain only
B. Painless jaundice without pain
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 3 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, C. Epigastric pain relieved by antacids exclusively
D. Right-upper-quadrant pain, often after a fatty meal, with possible radiation to the right shoulder or scapula
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Inflammation of the gallbladder produces characteristic RUQ pain that may radiate to the shoulder
(Boas sign) and is frequently triggered by fatty foods.
Question 11. A client with esophageal varices is at highest risk for which life-threatening
complication?
A. Massive upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage
B. Only mild heartburn
C. Chronic constipation
D. Acute appendicitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Varices are thin-walled portosystemic collaterals under high pressure; rupture produces sudden,
potentially exsanguinating bleeding.
Question 12. Which nursing action is appropriate for a client with a recently created colostomy?
A. Ignore the stoma appearance
B. Assess the stoma for color (should be pink/red and moist), measure output, and teach the client about
appliance care
C. Encourage the client to delay learning self-care indefinitely
D. Apply ice directly to the stoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A healthy stoma is pink to red and moist; pale or dark color suggests ischemia. Early education
supports independence and acceptance.
Question 13. A client with diverticulitis is typically managed initially with:
A. Immediate high-fiber diet and laxatives
B. Urgent colectomy for every case
C. Bowel rest, intravenous fluids, and antibiotics if infection is present
D. Unrestricted oral intake of seeds and nuts
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acute diverticulitis is treated with bowel rest, hydration, and antibiotics when indicated; surgery is
reserved for complications.
Question 14. Which laboratory pattern supports the diagnosis of viral hepatitis?
A. Isolated elevation of amylase only
B. Normal liver enzymes with high lipase
C. Low ALT with high albumin
D. Elevated ALT and AST, with variable bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase depending on the phase
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hepatocellular injury releases transaminases; the pattern and viral serologies help identify the
specific hepatitis virus.
Question 15. A client with a small-bowel obstruction is most likely to present with:
A. Cramping abdominal pain, vomiting, abdominal distention, and high-pitched bowel sounds early on
B. Absence of any pain or vomiting
C. Only diarrhea without distention
D. Painless rectal bleeding exclusively
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Proximal obstruction produces early vomiting and intermittent colicky pain; bowel sounds may be
hyperactive before becoming silent if ischemia develops.
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 3 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
NUR 2502 — Exam 3
Multidimensional Care III
INSTITUTION Rasmussen University
PROGRAM Bachelor of Science in Nursing
EXAM TITLE NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 3 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
COURSE CODE NUR 2502
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS 150 Questions
NUR 2502 | 2026/2027
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 3 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,INTRODUCTION
This document contains 150 original verified questions that comprehensively address the full NUR 2502
Examination 3 for the 2026/2027 academic year. The questions are organized across five core domains aligned
with the official Rasmussen University Multidimensional Care III curriculum: Domain 1 – Gastrointestinal
Disorders & Management; Domain 2 – Endocrine Disorders & Management; Domain 3 – Neurological Disorders;
Domain 4 – Hematologic & Oncologic Disorders; and Domain 5 – Integrated Clinical Judgment & Prioritization.
Content is original and designed to reinforce the official NUR 2502 course objectives for actual exam readiness
and multidimensional care proficiency for professional nursing candidates.
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Gastrointestinal Disorders & Management
Question 1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed a proton-pump inhibitor. The nurse
teaches that the primary action of this medication is to:
A. Decrease gastric acid secretion by inhibiting the proton pump in parietal cells
B. Neutralize existing stomach acid immediately
C. Increase mucus production only
D. Stimulate gastric motility
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Proton-pump inhibitors block the H+/K+-ATPase enzyme, markedly reducing acid production and
promoting ulcer healing.
Question 2. Which assessment finding is most consistent with a perforated peptic ulcer?
A. Mild epigastric discomfort relieved by food
B. Sudden severe abdominal pain, board-like rigidity, and signs of peritonitis
C. Gradual onset of diarrhea without pain
D. Isolated nausea without abdominal findings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Perforation allows gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity, producing chemical peritonitis with
acute, severe pain and abdominal rigidity.
Question 3. A client with cirrhosis develops ascites. The nurse anticipates which dietary
restriction?
A. Sodium restriction to reduce fluid retention
B. High sodium to improve volume
C. Unrestricted fluid and sodium
D. High protein without other limits
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sodium restriction limits fluid retention in the setting of portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia
that drive ascites formation.
Question 4. Which laboratory finding is most characteristic of acute pancreatitis?
A. Decreased liver enzymes only
B. Elevated serum amylase and lipase
C. Isolated hyperkalemia
D. Low bilirubin with normal enzymes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pancreatic enzyme leakage into the circulation produces characteristic elevations of amylase and
lipase, supporting the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis.
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 3 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,Question 5. A client with ulcerative colitis is at highest risk for which complication during an
acute flare?
A. Only mild constipation
B. Isolated peptic ulcer formation
C. Toxic megacolon and severe fluid/electrolyte imbalance
D. Acute cholecystitis exclusively
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe inflammation can lead to colonic dilation (toxic megacolon) and profound fluid, electrolyte,
and blood loss.
Question 6. Which intervention is the priority for a client with acute upper gastrointestinal
bleeding?
A. Immediate discharge teaching
B. Encouraging oral intake of large volumes
C. Delaying all interventions until laboratory results return
D. Airway protection, oxygen, and volume resuscitation while preparing for urgent endoscopy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hemodynamic stability and airway protection take precedence; endoscopy both diagnoses and can
therapeutically control the bleeding source.
Question 7. A client with Crohn disease is most likely to have inflammation involving:
A. Any segment of the GI tract with transmural, discontinuous (skip) lesions
B. Continuous mucosal inflammation limited to the colon and rectum
C. Only the esophagus
D. Exclusive involvement of the stomach
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Crohn disease can affect any portion of the GI tract from mouth to anus and produces transmural
inflammation with skip lesions, in contrast to ulcerative colitis.
Question 8. Which finding indicates that a client with a nasogastric tube to suction is developing a
metabolic acid–base disturbance?
A. Respiratory acidosis only
B. Metabolic alkalosis from loss of gastric acid
C. Metabolic acidosis from bicarbonate loss
D. No acid–base change is possible
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prolonged nasogastric suction removes hydrochloric acid, generating a metabolic alkalosis that
requires monitoring and electrolyte replacement.
Question 9. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is prescribed lactulose. The nurse understands
that the medication works by:
A. Increasing ammonia production
B. Acting as a direct CNS stimulant
C. Acidifying the colon and promoting excretion of ammonia in the stool
D. Replacing deficient clotting factors
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lactulose lowers colonic pH, converting ammonia to non-absorbable ammonium and increasing
fecal nitrogen excretion, thereby reducing blood ammonia.
Question 10. Which symptom is classic for cholecystitis?
A. Left-lower-quadrant pain only
B. Painless jaundice without pain
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 3 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, C. Epigastric pain relieved by antacids exclusively
D. Right-upper-quadrant pain, often after a fatty meal, with possible radiation to the right shoulder or scapula
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Inflammation of the gallbladder produces characteristic RUQ pain that may radiate to the shoulder
(Boas sign) and is frequently triggered by fatty foods.
Question 11. A client with esophageal varices is at highest risk for which life-threatening
complication?
A. Massive upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage
B. Only mild heartburn
C. Chronic constipation
D. Acute appendicitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Varices are thin-walled portosystemic collaterals under high pressure; rupture produces sudden,
potentially exsanguinating bleeding.
Question 12. Which nursing action is appropriate for a client with a recently created colostomy?
A. Ignore the stoma appearance
B. Assess the stoma for color (should be pink/red and moist), measure output, and teach the client about
appliance care
C. Encourage the client to delay learning self-care indefinitely
D. Apply ice directly to the stoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A healthy stoma is pink to red and moist; pale or dark color suggests ischemia. Early education
supports independence and acceptance.
Question 13. A client with diverticulitis is typically managed initially with:
A. Immediate high-fiber diet and laxatives
B. Urgent colectomy for every case
C. Bowel rest, intravenous fluids, and antibiotics if infection is present
D. Unrestricted oral intake of seeds and nuts
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acute diverticulitis is treated with bowel rest, hydration, and antibiotics when indicated; surgery is
reserved for complications.
Question 14. Which laboratory pattern supports the diagnosis of viral hepatitis?
A. Isolated elevation of amylase only
B. Normal liver enzymes with high lipase
C. Low ALT with high albumin
D. Elevated ALT and AST, with variable bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase depending on the phase
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hepatocellular injury releases transaminases; the pattern and viral serologies help identify the
specific hepatitis virus.
Question 15. A client with a small-bowel obstruction is most likely to present with:
A. Cramping abdominal pain, vomiting, abdominal distention, and high-pitched bowel sounds early on
B. Absence of any pain or vomiting
C. Only diarrhea without distention
D. Painless rectal bleeding exclusively
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Proximal obstruction produces early vomiting and intermittent colicky pain; bowel sounds may be
hyperactive before becoming silent if ischemia develops.
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 3 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
