Comprehensive RN Maternal Newborn 2026 Proctored Assessment 70 NGN Questions and Correct Answers

Comprehensive RN Maternal Newborn
2026 Proctored Assessment 70 NGN
Questions and Correct Answers
1. A woman is pregnant for the 4th time. She has 2 term births, 1 preterm birth, 1
abortion, and 3 living children. Which GTPAL is correct?
A. 4-2-1-1-3
B. 4-3-1-1-3
C. 4-2-1-0-3
D. 4-1-1-1-3
A. 4-2-1-1-3
Rationale: GTPAL = Gravida, Term, Preterm, Abortions, Living. G=4, T=2, P=1,
A=1, L=3.
2. A pregnant client asks how much folic acid to take to prevent neural tube
defects. The nurse recommends:
A. 100 mcg daily
B. 400 mcg daily
C. 1,000 mcg daily
D. 4 mg daily
B. 400 mcg daily
Rationale: 400 mcg daily is standard for prevention. Women with a prior NTD-
affected pregnancy may need 4 mg.
3. Using Naegele’s rule, a client’s LMP was April 10. What is the EDD?
A. January 3
B. January 10
C. January 17
D. January 24
C. January 17
Rationale: Add 7 days to LMP and subtract 3 months: April 10 → January 17.

,4. At 20 weeks’ gestation, the fundal height should be approximately at the:
A. Symphysis pubis
B. Umbilicus
C. Xiphoid process
D. Pelvic brim
B. Umbilicus
Rationale: At 20 weeks, fundal height is typically at the umbilicus.
5. Quickening is usually first felt by a primigravida at:
A. 8–10 weeks
B. 12–14 weeks
C. 16–20 weeks
D. 24–28 weeks
C. 16–20 weeks
Rationale: Primigravidas typically feel fetal movement at 16–20 weeks;
multigravidas may feel it earlier.
6. Fetal heart tones can usually be heard with a Doppler by:
A. 6–8 weeks
B. 10–12 weeks
C. 18–20 weeks
D. 24 weeks
B. 10–12 weeks
Rationale: Doppler detects FHTs around 10–12 weeks.
7. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein is typically drawn at:
A. 6–8 weeks
B. 10–12 weeks
C. 15–20 weeks
D. 24–28 weeks
C. 15–20 weeks
Rationale: AFP screening is done at 15–20 weeks to assess for neural tube
defects and other anomalies.

,8. A 1-hour glucose challenge test is usually performed at:
A. 8–12 weeks
B. 16–20 weeks
C. 24–28 weeks
D. 32–36 weeks
C. 24–28 weeks
Rationale: Gestational diabetes screening is routine at 24–28 weeks.
9. Group B streptococcus screening is performed at:
A. 12–16 weeks
B. 20–24 weeks
C. 28–32 weeks
D. 35–37 weeks
D. 35–37 weeks
Rationale: GBS culture is obtained at 35–37 weeks.
10. Rho(D) immune globulin is routinely given to an Rh-negative mother at:
A. 12 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 28 weeks
D. 36 weeks
C. 28 weeks
Rationale: RhIG is given at 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum if the
newborn is Rh-positive.
11. A normal prenatal visit schedule for an uncomplicated pregnancy is:
A. Every week until 28 weeks
B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, then every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly
C. Every 6 weeks throughout
D. Monthly until 36 weeks, then every 2 weeks
B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, then every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then
weekly
Rationale: This is the standard schedule for low-risk pregnancy.

, 12. Which finding should be reported immediately in pregnancy?
A. Mild nausea
B. Breast tenderness
C. Vaginal bleeding
D. Urinary frequency
C. Vaginal bleeding
Rationale: Bleeding may indicate miscarriage, placenta previa, abruption, or
other emergency.
13. Iron supplementation in pregnancy is best absorbed with:
A. Milk
B. Coffee
C. Vitamin C
D. Antacids
C. Vitamin C
Rationale: Vitamin C enhances iron absorption; milk, coffee, and antacids
decrease it.
14. Adequate calcium intake in pregnancy helps prevent:
A. Neural tube defects
B. Maternal bone loss
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Preterm labor
B. Maternal bone loss
Rationale: Calcium supports fetal skeletal development and helps protect
maternal bone density.
15. Kegel exercises strengthen the:
A. Abdominal muscles
B. Pelvic floor muscles
C. Uterine muscles
D. Back muscles
B. Pelvic floor muscles