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Nursing 212 Pathophysiology Exam 3 Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf | Eastwick College

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Nursing 212 Pathophysiology Exam 3 Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf | Eastwick College

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NURSING 212 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 3 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF | EASTWICK COLLEGE.

CORE DOMAINS

Cellular Adaptation and Injury
Inflammation and Immunity
Cardiovascular Disorders
Respiratory Disorders
Renal and Urinary Disorders
Endocrine Disorders
Gastrointestinal Disorders
Neurologic Disorders
Musculoskeletal Disorders
Integumentary Disorders

INTRODUCTION

The NURSING 212 Pathophysiology Exam 3 assesses a student's
comprehensive understanding of disease mechanisms, cellular
responses, and systemic alterations. This examination evaluates
foundational theory and applied clinical knowledge through
multiple-choice and scenario-based questions. Students must
demonstrate proficiency in analyzing pathophysiological processes,
interpreting clinical manifestations, and applying critical thinking to
real-world patient scenarios. The examination emphasizes
integration of molecular, cellular, and systemic concepts to prepare
for professional nursing practice and decision-making.

SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100

Question 1

,A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has
a barrel-shaped chest. This is primarily due to:

A. Increased mucus production
B. Air trapping and hyperinflation
C. Destruction of alveolar walls
D. Chronic bronchitis

🟢B
🔴 RATIONALE: Air trapping and hyperinflation in COPD lead to a
barrel-shaped chest due to loss of elastic recoil and air trapping.

Question 2

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for contact
dermatitis?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

🟢D
🔴 RATIONALE: Contact dermatitis is a Type IV delayed
hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells.

Question 3

A patient with acute kidney injury has a urine output of 100 mL in
24 hours. This is classified as:

A. Polyuria
B. Oliguria

,C. Anuria
D. Dysuria

🟢B
🔴 RATIONALE: Oliguria is defined as urine output less than 400
mL per day. 100 mL is within the oliguric range.

Question 4

The most common cause of peptic ulcer disease is:

A. Helicobacter pylori infection
B. Excessive caffeine intake
C. Stress
D. Alcohol consumption

🟢A
🔴 RATIONALE: Helicobacter pylori infection is the leading cause
of peptic ulcer disease, accounting for the majority of cases.

Question 5

A patient with left-sided heart failure is most likely to experience:

A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular venous distention
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Hepatomegaly

🟢C
🔴 RATIONALE: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary
congestion, causing crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea.

Question 6

, Which electrolyte imbalance is characterized by tall, peaked T
waves on ECG?

A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypercalcemia

🟢B
🔴 RATIONALE: Hyperkalemia causes tall, peaked T waves and
widened QRS complexes on ECG.

Question 7

A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis presents with deep, rapid
respirations. This is known as:

A. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
B. Kussmaul respirations
C. Biot's respirations
D. Apneustic respirations

🟢B
🔴 RATIONALE: Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid,
occurring as a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis in
DKA.

Question 8

Which of the following is a classic sign of Cushing's syndrome?

A. Weight loss
B. Hypotension

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