Legit ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Exit Exam
Level 3 with NGN 180 Questions and Answers to
Pass Actual 2026 RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
Exit Exam
1. After verifying unresponsiveness and absence of breathing, what is the
priority action?
A. Start chest compressions
B. Check capillary refill
C. Give oral glucose
D. Obtain blood pressure
Correct: A
Rationale: For an unresponsive, apneic adult, begin high-quality CPR
immediately.
2. Which precaution requires a negative-pressure room?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Standard
Correct: C
Rationale: Airborne precautions, such as for TB and measles, require a
negative-pressure room.
3. Which medication is the antidote for warfarin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Flumazenil
Correct: A
Rationale: Vitamin K reverses warfarin anticoagulation.
,4. Which finding indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Heart rate 58/min
B. Visual halos
C. Weight gain
D. Dry cough
Correct: B
Rationale: Visual halos or yellow-green vision are classic signs of digoxin
toxicity.
5. Which statement by a client taking lithium indicates correct understanding?
A. “I will maintain consistent sodium intake.”
B. “I will decrease all fluids.”
C. “I will avoid all salt.”
D. “I will increase caffeine.”
Correct: A
Rationale: Sodium and fluid fluctuations can alter lithium levels.
6. A postoperative client has sudden dyspnea, chest pain, and tachycardia.
What is the priority?
A. Administer oxygen
B. Ambulate the client
C. Give oral pain medication
D. Check blood glucose
Correct: A
Rationale: These signs suggest pulmonary embolism; oxygen and
emergency support are priority.
7. Which is a sign of hypoglycemia?
A. Kussmaul respirations
B. Cold, clammy skin
C. Fruity breath
D. Polyuria
Correct: B
, Rationale: Hypoglycemia causes diaphoresis, tremors, pallor, and cold,
clammy skin.
8. A client taking furosemide has which lab value indicating a complication?
A. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
C. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL
Correct: A
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia; potassium 3.0 is low.
9. Which action is correct for a client with an epidural?
A. Assess for headache
B. Ambulate immediately
C. Remove the catheter
D. Give a bolus rapidly
Correct: A
Rationale: Epidural complications include spinal headache, hypotension,
and infection.
10.A newborn has yellow skin on day 3. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Encourage frequent feeding
B. Give antibiotics
C. Restrict fluids
D. Place supine flat
Correct: A
Rationale: Frequent feeding promotes bilirubin excretion in physiologic
jaundice.
11.Which is a sign of increased intracranial pressure in an infant?
A. Bulging fontanelle
B. Sunken fontanelle
C. Hypotension
D. Tachycardia
, Correct: A
Rationale: A bulging fontanelle is a sign of increased intracranial
pressure.
12.A client taking clozapine has which finding that requires immediate
attention?
A. WBC 2,000/mm³
B. Weight gain
C. Dry mouth
D. Sedation
Correct: A
Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis; a low WBC is
dangerous.
13.Which is the priority for a client in septic shock?
A. Obtain cultures
B. Give antibiotics
C. Monitor urine output
D. Give pain medication
Correct: A
Rationale: Cultures are obtained before antibiotics if it does not delay
treatment.
14.A chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What does
this indicate?
A. Air leak
B. Normal tidaling
C. Clotting
D. Resolution of pneumothorax
Correct: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an
air leak.
Level 3 with NGN 180 Questions and Answers to
Pass Actual 2026 RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
Exit Exam
1. After verifying unresponsiveness and absence of breathing, what is the
priority action?
A. Start chest compressions
B. Check capillary refill
C. Give oral glucose
D. Obtain blood pressure
Correct: A
Rationale: For an unresponsive, apneic adult, begin high-quality CPR
immediately.
2. Which precaution requires a negative-pressure room?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Standard
Correct: C
Rationale: Airborne precautions, such as for TB and measles, require a
negative-pressure room.
3. Which medication is the antidote for warfarin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Flumazenil
Correct: A
Rationale: Vitamin K reverses warfarin anticoagulation.
,4. Which finding indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Heart rate 58/min
B. Visual halos
C. Weight gain
D. Dry cough
Correct: B
Rationale: Visual halos or yellow-green vision are classic signs of digoxin
toxicity.
5. Which statement by a client taking lithium indicates correct understanding?
A. “I will maintain consistent sodium intake.”
B. “I will decrease all fluids.”
C. “I will avoid all salt.”
D. “I will increase caffeine.”
Correct: A
Rationale: Sodium and fluid fluctuations can alter lithium levels.
6. A postoperative client has sudden dyspnea, chest pain, and tachycardia.
What is the priority?
A. Administer oxygen
B. Ambulate the client
C. Give oral pain medication
D. Check blood glucose
Correct: A
Rationale: These signs suggest pulmonary embolism; oxygen and
emergency support are priority.
7. Which is a sign of hypoglycemia?
A. Kussmaul respirations
B. Cold, clammy skin
C. Fruity breath
D. Polyuria
Correct: B
, Rationale: Hypoglycemia causes diaphoresis, tremors, pallor, and cold,
clammy skin.
8. A client taking furosemide has which lab value indicating a complication?
A. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
C. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL
Correct: A
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia; potassium 3.0 is low.
9. Which action is correct for a client with an epidural?
A. Assess for headache
B. Ambulate immediately
C. Remove the catheter
D. Give a bolus rapidly
Correct: A
Rationale: Epidural complications include spinal headache, hypotension,
and infection.
10.A newborn has yellow skin on day 3. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Encourage frequent feeding
B. Give antibiotics
C. Restrict fluids
D. Place supine flat
Correct: A
Rationale: Frequent feeding promotes bilirubin excretion in physiologic
jaundice.
11.Which is a sign of increased intracranial pressure in an infant?
A. Bulging fontanelle
B. Sunken fontanelle
C. Hypotension
D. Tachycardia
, Correct: A
Rationale: A bulging fontanelle is a sign of increased intracranial
pressure.
12.A client taking clozapine has which finding that requires immediate
attention?
A. WBC 2,000/mm³
B. Weight gain
C. Dry mouth
D. Sedation
Correct: A
Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis; a low WBC is
dangerous.
13.Which is the priority for a client in septic shock?
A. Obtain cultures
B. Give antibiotics
C. Monitor urine output
D. Give pain medication
Correct: A
Rationale: Cultures are obtained before antibiotics if it does not delay
treatment.
14.A chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What does
this indicate?
A. Air leak
B. Normal tidaling
C. Clotting
D. Resolution of pneumothorax
Correct: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an
air leak.
