This is Part 1 of the Doctor of
Veterinary Medicine (DVM) Program
Comprehensive Test Bank based on the
NAVLE Content Outline by the
International Council for Veterinary
Assessment (ICVA).
TABLE OF CONTENTS - PART 1 of 5
Canine and Feline Medicine - Questions 1-20
Equine Medicine and Surgery - Questions 21-35
Bovine Medicine and Production - Questions 36-50
Small Ruminant and Porcine Medicine - Questions 51-60
Anesthesia and Analgesia - Questions 61-70
Emergency and Critical Care - Questions 71-80
Pharmacology and Toxicology - Questions 81-90
Preventive Medicine and One Health - Questions 91-100
CANINE AND FELINE MEDICINE
Q1. A 6-year-old intact female Golden Retriever presents with a 3-week history of progressive
lethargy, polyuria, polydipsia, and a pendulous abdomen. On physical examination the dog has a thin
haircoat, hepatomegaly, and a blood pressure of 190/120 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing disease)
B. Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison disease)
C. Diabetes mellitus
1
,D. Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing disease)
Rationale: The presentation of polyuria, polydipsia, pendulous abdomen, thin haircoat,
hepatomegaly, and systemic hypertension is classic for hyperadrenocorticism in middle-aged to older
dogs, with the pituitary-dependent form being most common. Hypoadrenocorticism presents with
weight loss, weakness, gastrointestinal signs, and often hypotension rather than hypertension, and
the clinical picture is fundamentally different. Diabetes mellitus would present with polyuria and
polydipsia but not typically with a pendulous abdomen, thin haircoat, or hepatomegaly of this
magnitude. Hypothyroidism presents with weight gain, lethargy, and a non-pruritic symmetric
alopecia but does not cause polyuria or polydipsia as the dominant findings.
Q2. A 4-year-old castrated male Domestic Shorthair cat presents with acute onset of dyspnea,
cyanosis, and a gallop rhythm. Thoracic radiographs show cardiomegaly with a globoid cardiac
silhouette and pleural effusion. Echocardiography reveals thickened left ventricular free wall and
papillary muscles with systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
D. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the most common cardiac disease in cats and
characteristically presents with thickened left ventricular free wall and papillary muscles on
echocardiography and systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve. Dilated cardiomyopathy presents
with a dilated, thin-walled left ventricle and reduced contractility, and is now rare due to taurine
supplementation. Restrictive cardiomyopathy presents with normal or mildly thickened ventricular
walls and diastolic dysfunction but not with the symmetric hypertrophy described. Arrhythmogenic
right ventricular cardiomyopathy is rare in cats and primarily affects the right ventricle.
Q3. A 10-year-old neutered male Yorkshire Terrier presents with a 2-month history of coughing,
exercise intolerance, and a holosystolic murmur heard best at the left apex. Thoracic radiographs
show left atrial enlargement and pulmonary edema. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Degenerative mitral valve disease
B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Aortic stenosis
2
,Correct Answer: Degenerative mitral valve disease
Rationale: Degenerative mitral valve disease is the most common acquired cardiac disease in
small-breed dogs and presents with a holosystolic murmur at the left apex, left atrial enlargement,
and pulmonary edema. Dilated cardiomyopathy is more common in large-breed dogs and presents
with a systolic murmur, arrhythmias, and generalized cardiomegaly. Patent ductus arteriosus
presents with a continuous murmur at the left base. Aortic stenosis presents with a systolic murmur
at the left base and is more common in large-breed dogs.
Q4. A 3-year-old intact male Labrador Retriever presents with acute onset of vomiting, diarrhea, and
abdominal pain. On physical examination the dog is febrile and has a palpable, thickened, tubular
structure in the mid-abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Intussusception
B. Foreign body obstruction
C. Pancreatitis
D. Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Rationale: Intussusception is a common cause of acute vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal
pain in young dogs and often presents with a palpable, thickened, tubular structure in the mid-
abdomen. Foreign body obstruction typically presents with vomiting but without a tubular structure.
Pancreatitis presents with vomiting and abdominal pain but without the tubular structure.
Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis presents with acute bloody diarrhea and vomiting but without the
palpable tubular structure.
Q5. A 5-year-old spayed female Poodle presents with a 2-week history of polyuria, polydipsia, and
weight loss despite a good appetite. Serum chemistry reveals marked hyperglycemia and glucosuria.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
A. NPH insulin twice daily
B. Insulin glargine once daily
C. Glipizide orally
D. Metformin orally
Correct Answer: NPH insulin twice daily
Rationale: NPH insulin given twice daily is the most commonly used initial insulin for diabetic
dogs. Insulin glargine is used more commonly in cats than in dogs. Oral hypoglycemic agents such as
glipizide and metformin are not effective in dogs with type 1-like diabetes because they have
insufficient beta-cell function.
3
, Q6. A 12-year-old neutered male Domestic Shorthair cat presents with a 2-month history of weight
loss despite a good appetite, polyuria, polydipsia, and a grade II/VI systolic murmur. Serum chemistry
reveals hyperglycemia of 380 mg/dL and glucosuria. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Chronic kidney disease
D. Diabetes insipidus
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Rationale: Diabetes mellitus is common in middle-aged to older cats and presents with weight
loss despite a good appetite, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and glucosuria. Hyperthyroidism
presents with weight loss and polyphagia but not typically with hyperglycemia. Chronic kidney
disease presents with weight loss, polyuria, and polydipsia but not with hyperglycemia. Diabetes
insipidus presents with polyuria and polydipsia but with normal blood glucose.
Q7. A 6-year-old castrated male German Shepherd Dog presents with a 3-week history of progressive
ataxia, proprioceptive deficits in all four limbs, and neck pain. Neurologic examination localizes the
lesion to the cervical spinal cord. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cervical spondylomyelopathy (Wobbler syndrome)
B. Intervertebral disc disease
C. Degenerative myelopathy
D. Fibrocartilaginous embolism
Correct Answer: Cervical spondylomyelopathy (Wobbler syndrome)
Rationale: Cervical spondylomyelopathy, or Wobbler syndrome, is common in large-breed
dogs such as the Doberman Pinscher and Great Dane, and it presents with progressive ataxia and
proprioceptive deficits due to compression of the cervical spinal cord. Intervertebral disc disease is
more common in chondrodystrophic breeds and often presents acutely. Degenerative myelopathy is
a non-painful, slowly progressive disease of the thoracolumbar spinal cord. Fibrocartilaginous
embolism presents acutely and non-progressively.
Q8. A 2-year-old intact male Boxer presents with a 3-day history of lethargy, anorexia, and a
distended abdomen. On physical examination the dog is tachycardic, has a pulsus paradoxus, and has
muffled heart sounds. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pericardial effusion
B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
C. Heartworm disease
4
Veterinary Medicine (DVM) Program
Comprehensive Test Bank based on the
NAVLE Content Outline by the
International Council for Veterinary
Assessment (ICVA).
TABLE OF CONTENTS - PART 1 of 5
Canine and Feline Medicine - Questions 1-20
Equine Medicine and Surgery - Questions 21-35
Bovine Medicine and Production - Questions 36-50
Small Ruminant and Porcine Medicine - Questions 51-60
Anesthesia and Analgesia - Questions 61-70
Emergency and Critical Care - Questions 71-80
Pharmacology and Toxicology - Questions 81-90
Preventive Medicine and One Health - Questions 91-100
CANINE AND FELINE MEDICINE
Q1. A 6-year-old intact female Golden Retriever presents with a 3-week history of progressive
lethargy, polyuria, polydipsia, and a pendulous abdomen. On physical examination the dog has a thin
haircoat, hepatomegaly, and a blood pressure of 190/120 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing disease)
B. Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison disease)
C. Diabetes mellitus
1
,D. Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing disease)
Rationale: The presentation of polyuria, polydipsia, pendulous abdomen, thin haircoat,
hepatomegaly, and systemic hypertension is classic for hyperadrenocorticism in middle-aged to older
dogs, with the pituitary-dependent form being most common. Hypoadrenocorticism presents with
weight loss, weakness, gastrointestinal signs, and often hypotension rather than hypertension, and
the clinical picture is fundamentally different. Diabetes mellitus would present with polyuria and
polydipsia but not typically with a pendulous abdomen, thin haircoat, or hepatomegaly of this
magnitude. Hypothyroidism presents with weight gain, lethargy, and a non-pruritic symmetric
alopecia but does not cause polyuria or polydipsia as the dominant findings.
Q2. A 4-year-old castrated male Domestic Shorthair cat presents with acute onset of dyspnea,
cyanosis, and a gallop rhythm. Thoracic radiographs show cardiomegaly with a globoid cardiac
silhouette and pleural effusion. Echocardiography reveals thickened left ventricular free wall and
papillary muscles with systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
D. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the most common cardiac disease in cats and
characteristically presents with thickened left ventricular free wall and papillary muscles on
echocardiography and systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve. Dilated cardiomyopathy presents
with a dilated, thin-walled left ventricle and reduced contractility, and is now rare due to taurine
supplementation. Restrictive cardiomyopathy presents with normal or mildly thickened ventricular
walls and diastolic dysfunction but not with the symmetric hypertrophy described. Arrhythmogenic
right ventricular cardiomyopathy is rare in cats and primarily affects the right ventricle.
Q3. A 10-year-old neutered male Yorkshire Terrier presents with a 2-month history of coughing,
exercise intolerance, and a holosystolic murmur heard best at the left apex. Thoracic radiographs
show left atrial enlargement and pulmonary edema. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Degenerative mitral valve disease
B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Aortic stenosis
2
,Correct Answer: Degenerative mitral valve disease
Rationale: Degenerative mitral valve disease is the most common acquired cardiac disease in
small-breed dogs and presents with a holosystolic murmur at the left apex, left atrial enlargement,
and pulmonary edema. Dilated cardiomyopathy is more common in large-breed dogs and presents
with a systolic murmur, arrhythmias, and generalized cardiomegaly. Patent ductus arteriosus
presents with a continuous murmur at the left base. Aortic stenosis presents with a systolic murmur
at the left base and is more common in large-breed dogs.
Q4. A 3-year-old intact male Labrador Retriever presents with acute onset of vomiting, diarrhea, and
abdominal pain. On physical examination the dog is febrile and has a palpable, thickened, tubular
structure in the mid-abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Intussusception
B. Foreign body obstruction
C. Pancreatitis
D. Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Rationale: Intussusception is a common cause of acute vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal
pain in young dogs and often presents with a palpable, thickened, tubular structure in the mid-
abdomen. Foreign body obstruction typically presents with vomiting but without a tubular structure.
Pancreatitis presents with vomiting and abdominal pain but without the tubular structure.
Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis presents with acute bloody diarrhea and vomiting but without the
palpable tubular structure.
Q5. A 5-year-old spayed female Poodle presents with a 2-week history of polyuria, polydipsia, and
weight loss despite a good appetite. Serum chemistry reveals marked hyperglycemia and glucosuria.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
A. NPH insulin twice daily
B. Insulin glargine once daily
C. Glipizide orally
D. Metformin orally
Correct Answer: NPH insulin twice daily
Rationale: NPH insulin given twice daily is the most commonly used initial insulin for diabetic
dogs. Insulin glargine is used more commonly in cats than in dogs. Oral hypoglycemic agents such as
glipizide and metformin are not effective in dogs with type 1-like diabetes because they have
insufficient beta-cell function.
3
, Q6. A 12-year-old neutered male Domestic Shorthair cat presents with a 2-month history of weight
loss despite a good appetite, polyuria, polydipsia, and a grade II/VI systolic murmur. Serum chemistry
reveals hyperglycemia of 380 mg/dL and glucosuria. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Chronic kidney disease
D. Diabetes insipidus
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Rationale: Diabetes mellitus is common in middle-aged to older cats and presents with weight
loss despite a good appetite, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and glucosuria. Hyperthyroidism
presents with weight loss and polyphagia but not typically with hyperglycemia. Chronic kidney
disease presents with weight loss, polyuria, and polydipsia but not with hyperglycemia. Diabetes
insipidus presents with polyuria and polydipsia but with normal blood glucose.
Q7. A 6-year-old castrated male German Shepherd Dog presents with a 3-week history of progressive
ataxia, proprioceptive deficits in all four limbs, and neck pain. Neurologic examination localizes the
lesion to the cervical spinal cord. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cervical spondylomyelopathy (Wobbler syndrome)
B. Intervertebral disc disease
C. Degenerative myelopathy
D. Fibrocartilaginous embolism
Correct Answer: Cervical spondylomyelopathy (Wobbler syndrome)
Rationale: Cervical spondylomyelopathy, or Wobbler syndrome, is common in large-breed
dogs such as the Doberman Pinscher and Great Dane, and it presents with progressive ataxia and
proprioceptive deficits due to compression of the cervical spinal cord. Intervertebral disc disease is
more common in chondrodystrophic breeds and often presents acutely. Degenerative myelopathy is
a non-painful, slowly progressive disease of the thoracolumbar spinal cord. Fibrocartilaginous
embolism presents acutely and non-progressively.
Q8. A 2-year-old intact male Boxer presents with a 3-day history of lethargy, anorexia, and a
distended abdomen. On physical examination the dog is tachycardic, has a pulsus paradoxus, and has
muffled heart sounds. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pericardial effusion
B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
C. Heartworm disease
4
