NSG 3500 Maternal Exam 1 | Questions
and Answers with Rationales | 2026/2027
Updated | 100% Correct
NSG 3500 Maternal Exam 1 Study Guide: Reproductive Anatomy, Hormones, and Prenatal
Foundations
50 Questions | Multiple Choice & SATA | Detailed Rationales | Complete Answer Key
Table of Contents
Section Topic Questions
I Female Reproductive Anatomy & Development 1–12
II Menstrual Cycle & Reproductive Hormones 13–24
III Pregnancy Signs, Symptoms & Diagnosis 25–35
IV Prenatal Care, Labs & Patient Education 36–50
— Complete Answer Key —
— High-Yield Review —
Section I: Female Reproductive Anatomy & Development
Questions 1–12
Question 1
A perinatal nurse explains to a new nurse that a female fetus has developed ovaries by which
week of gestation?
,A) 8 weeks
B) 10 weeks
C) 12 weeks
D) 16 weeks
Correct Answer: B) 10 weeks
Rationale: Ovarian differentiation in female fetuses occurs around the 10th week of
gestation, marking the onset of ovarian hormone production, which is critical for the
development of female reproductive structures. Understanding this timeline is essential for
recognizing key stages of fetal development and their implications for maternal-fetal health .
Question 2
The nursing instructor explains to students that external female genitalia develop under which
influence?
A) Absence of androgens
B) Ductal pair dominance
C) Ovary production
D) Process of oogonia
Correct Answer: A) Absence of androgens
Rationale: External female genitalia develop in the absence of androgens, which allows
for the expression of female phenotypic traits, while the presence of androgens typically leads
to male genital development. This principle underscores the critical role of hormonal influence
in sexual differentiation during embryonic development .
Question 3
A pregnant woman has been advised that she has a platypelloid pelvis type. What action by the
prenatal nurse is the best?
A) Advise the woman that she may need a cesarean delivery
B) Educate the woman that a posterior fetal presentation is possible
C) Instruct the woman on specific back strengthening exercises
D) Reassure the woman that a trial of labor will still be allowed
Correct Answer: A) Advise the woman that she may need a cesarean delivery
, Rationale: The platypelloid pelvis is flat and has a wide transverse diameter but a narrow
anteroposterior diameter. This shape makes it difficult for the fetus to engage in a longitudinal
lie, increasing the risk of transverse lie or malpresentation. The gynecoid pelvis is the most
favorable for vaginal delivery, while android and anthropoid pelvises are associated with other
types of malpresentations .
Question 4
The perinatal nurse explains to the new nurse that the maternal pelvic shape can determine the
fetal presentation. A fetus in a transverse presentation may be due to which maternal pelvic
type?
A) Android
B) Anthropoid
C) Gynecoid
D) Platypelloid
Correct Answer: D) Platypelloid
Rationale: A platypelloid pelvis, characterized by a wide transverse diameter and a
flattened shape, can contribute to a fetus adopting a transverse presentation due to inadequate
space for optimal positioning during labor. This pelvic type limits the ability of the fetus to rotate
into the more favorable positions for birth .
Question 5
A nurse is conducting prenatal classes. The nurse explains the incision made to enlarge the
perineal opening for a vaginal birth. What is this incision called?
A) Colposcopy
B) Episiotomy
C) Ligation
D) Septal myotomy
Correct Answer: B) Episiotomy
Rationale: An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum to enlarge the
vaginal opening for childbirth. A colposcopy (A) is a procedure to examine the cervix. Ligation
(C) refers to tying off blood vessels. Septal myotomy (D) is a cardiac procedure .
and Answers with Rationales | 2026/2027
Updated | 100% Correct
NSG 3500 Maternal Exam 1 Study Guide: Reproductive Anatomy, Hormones, and Prenatal
Foundations
50 Questions | Multiple Choice & SATA | Detailed Rationales | Complete Answer Key
Table of Contents
Section Topic Questions
I Female Reproductive Anatomy & Development 1–12
II Menstrual Cycle & Reproductive Hormones 13–24
III Pregnancy Signs, Symptoms & Diagnosis 25–35
IV Prenatal Care, Labs & Patient Education 36–50
— Complete Answer Key —
— High-Yield Review —
Section I: Female Reproductive Anatomy & Development
Questions 1–12
Question 1
A perinatal nurse explains to a new nurse that a female fetus has developed ovaries by which
week of gestation?
,A) 8 weeks
B) 10 weeks
C) 12 weeks
D) 16 weeks
Correct Answer: B) 10 weeks
Rationale: Ovarian differentiation in female fetuses occurs around the 10th week of
gestation, marking the onset of ovarian hormone production, which is critical for the
development of female reproductive structures. Understanding this timeline is essential for
recognizing key stages of fetal development and their implications for maternal-fetal health .
Question 2
The nursing instructor explains to students that external female genitalia develop under which
influence?
A) Absence of androgens
B) Ductal pair dominance
C) Ovary production
D) Process of oogonia
Correct Answer: A) Absence of androgens
Rationale: External female genitalia develop in the absence of androgens, which allows
for the expression of female phenotypic traits, while the presence of androgens typically leads
to male genital development. This principle underscores the critical role of hormonal influence
in sexual differentiation during embryonic development .
Question 3
A pregnant woman has been advised that she has a platypelloid pelvis type. What action by the
prenatal nurse is the best?
A) Advise the woman that she may need a cesarean delivery
B) Educate the woman that a posterior fetal presentation is possible
C) Instruct the woman on specific back strengthening exercises
D) Reassure the woman that a trial of labor will still be allowed
Correct Answer: A) Advise the woman that she may need a cesarean delivery
, Rationale: The platypelloid pelvis is flat and has a wide transverse diameter but a narrow
anteroposterior diameter. This shape makes it difficult for the fetus to engage in a longitudinal
lie, increasing the risk of transverse lie or malpresentation. The gynecoid pelvis is the most
favorable for vaginal delivery, while android and anthropoid pelvises are associated with other
types of malpresentations .
Question 4
The perinatal nurse explains to the new nurse that the maternal pelvic shape can determine the
fetal presentation. A fetus in a transverse presentation may be due to which maternal pelvic
type?
A) Android
B) Anthropoid
C) Gynecoid
D) Platypelloid
Correct Answer: D) Platypelloid
Rationale: A platypelloid pelvis, characterized by a wide transverse diameter and a
flattened shape, can contribute to a fetus adopting a transverse presentation due to inadequate
space for optimal positioning during labor. This pelvic type limits the ability of the fetus to rotate
into the more favorable positions for birth .
Question 5
A nurse is conducting prenatal classes. The nurse explains the incision made to enlarge the
perineal opening for a vaginal birth. What is this incision called?
A) Colposcopy
B) Episiotomy
C) Ligation
D) Septal myotomy
Correct Answer: B) Episiotomy
Rationale: An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum to enlarge the
vaginal opening for childbirth. A colposcopy (A) is a procedure to examine the cervix. Ligation
(C) refers to tying off blood vessels. Septal myotomy (D) is a cardiac procedure .
