Cmc Aacn Exam Latest 2026 Actual Exam Test
Bank| Complete Real Exam Questions And
Correct Detailed Answers (Verified Answers)
Graded A+| Aacn Cmc Exam Prep (Brand
New!!)2026-2027
A patient presents to the ED with CPR and bag valve mask ventilations in
progress, the patient was found unresponsive at home and bystander
CPR was started after EMS was called. upon EMS arrival a HR of 58 and
sinus bradycardia with no palpable carotid pulse were present. CPR
continued, an IO was placed and IV epinephrine (Adrenaline) was
administered 3 minutes out from ED. Upon arrival there was no change
in patient status, in addition to determining potential causes of the
arrest, the next steps the nurse should anticipate include administration
of:
A. a dopamine (Intropin) infusion and immediate intubation.
B. IV epinephrine (Adrenaline) and considering a fluid bolus.
C. IV amiodarone (Cordarone) and continuing CPR.
D. atropine and considering initiation of TTM.
A. incorrect. dopamine is not recommended for the management of
pulseless arrest.
B. correct. epinephrine is recommended to administer every 3-5 minutes
in pulseless electrical activity arrest. a fluid bolus may be considered
since hypovolemia is a potential cause of any cardiac arrest situation.
C. incorrect.
D. incorrect. atropine is not indicated for the management of pulseless
arrest. TTM would be considered after ROSC for patients who are not
response to verbal commands.
,A patient with acute decompensation of heart failure is admitted. a PA
cath is inserted and reveals PAOP 25mmHg and CI 1.7L/min. which initial
intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A.1 L bolus normal saline.
B. biventricular pacing.
C. milrinone (Primacor) infusion.
D. furosemide (Lasix) IV push.
A. incorrect. the patient is demonstrating fluid overload with a PAOP of
25mmHG. a fluid bolus will increase pulmonary congestion.
B. incorrect. biventricular pacing is indicated in patients with a low
cardiac index, which this patient has, AND a low PAOP.
C. correct. administration of an inotrope and vasodilator is indicated for
patients with a low cardiac index and high PAOP.
D. incorrect. furosemide is indicated for patients with an elevated or
normal cardiac index and elevated PAOP.
A 78 year old is reporting abdominal pain and pain in the lower back
radiating to the back of the thighs. which of the following are indicated
to provide the best diagnostic information?
A. a PMH, physical exam, and a CT of the chest and abdomen.
B. an MRI of the spine, physical exam, and an U/S of the abdomen.
C. an U/S of the abdomen, family history and an MRI of the spine.
D. a PMH, physical exam and a CT of the spine.
A. correct. due to his age, sex, and location of the pain, an abdominal
aortic aneurysm (AAA) is suspected. a patient history is needed because
of patients with an aortic aneurysm 90% have a history of systemic HTN.
initial tests recommended for a patient with an AAA are abdominal U/S,
if the patient is unstable, or CT of the chest and abdomen is the patient
is stable.
B, C, & D. incorrect. there is no need for an MRI for a suspected AAA.
,Which of the following describes a murmur that the nurse should
anticipate in a patient with a history of endocarditis, ETOH, and IV drug
abuse?
A. rumbling diastolic murmur that is loudest at the apex.
B. musical systolic murmur that is loudest at the upper right sternal
border.
C. harsh systolic murmur that is loudest at the lower left sternal border.
D. blowing diastolic murmur that is loudest at the upper right sternal
border and radiates to the apex.
A. incorrect. this finding is consistent with mitral stenosis.
B. incorrect. this finding is consistent with aortic stenosis.
C. correct. this finding is consistent with tricuspid regurgitation. the
murmur is usually augmented during inspiration and is reduced in
intensity and duration in the standing position.
D. incorrect. this finding is consistent with aortic regurgitation.
Who would be at greatest risk for thoracic aortic aneurysm? a patient
with:
A. marfan syndrome
B. down's syndrome
C. cystic fibrosis
D. WPW syndrome
A. correct. a thoracic aortic aneurysm is an enlarged weak area of the
aorta. the risk of dissection and rupture is very high when the aortic
dilation reaches 60mm.
B, C, & D. incorrect.
, A patient presents to the ED reporting chest tightness for the last 3
hours. VS are BP 110/78 ; HR 93 ; RR 18 ; SpO2 97%. ECG shows NSR.
which of the following interventions is recommended at this time?
A. 2L of oxygen via nc.
B. 325mg of chewable ASA.
C. initiation of fibrinolytic protocol.
D. enalapril (Vasotec) 5mg IVP.
A. incorrect.
B. correct. ASA is effective in patients with a NSTEMI.
C. incorrect. fibrinolytics are not recommended for the treatment of
patients with a NSTEMI.
D. incorrect.
A patient on prolonged bedrest reports leg pain and swelling. which
procedures should the nurse anticipate?
A. reviewing history for risk factors, doppler U/S and venography.
B. doppler U/S, platelet function and venography.
C. reviewing history for risk factors, platelet function and doppler
ultrasound.
D. doppler U/S, coag studies, and D-Dimer.
A. correct. the patient has risk factors for and is demonstrating
symptoms of a DVT. a review of risk factors should take place. this
patient has been on prolonged bed rest which places the patient at
increased risk of this complication. this diagnosis can be confirmed with
doppler U/S and venogram.
B, C, & D. incorrect. although platelet and coagulation studies may be
useful for treatment, they are not recommended as an initial method for
diagnosis of DVT.
Bank| Complete Real Exam Questions And
Correct Detailed Answers (Verified Answers)
Graded A+| Aacn Cmc Exam Prep (Brand
New!!)2026-2027
A patient presents to the ED with CPR and bag valve mask ventilations in
progress, the patient was found unresponsive at home and bystander
CPR was started after EMS was called. upon EMS arrival a HR of 58 and
sinus bradycardia with no palpable carotid pulse were present. CPR
continued, an IO was placed and IV epinephrine (Adrenaline) was
administered 3 minutes out from ED. Upon arrival there was no change
in patient status, in addition to determining potential causes of the
arrest, the next steps the nurse should anticipate include administration
of:
A. a dopamine (Intropin) infusion and immediate intubation.
B. IV epinephrine (Adrenaline) and considering a fluid bolus.
C. IV amiodarone (Cordarone) and continuing CPR.
D. atropine and considering initiation of TTM.
A. incorrect. dopamine is not recommended for the management of
pulseless arrest.
B. correct. epinephrine is recommended to administer every 3-5 minutes
in pulseless electrical activity arrest. a fluid bolus may be considered
since hypovolemia is a potential cause of any cardiac arrest situation.
C. incorrect.
D. incorrect. atropine is not indicated for the management of pulseless
arrest. TTM would be considered after ROSC for patients who are not
response to verbal commands.
,A patient with acute decompensation of heart failure is admitted. a PA
cath is inserted and reveals PAOP 25mmHg and CI 1.7L/min. which initial
intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A.1 L bolus normal saline.
B. biventricular pacing.
C. milrinone (Primacor) infusion.
D. furosemide (Lasix) IV push.
A. incorrect. the patient is demonstrating fluid overload with a PAOP of
25mmHG. a fluid bolus will increase pulmonary congestion.
B. incorrect. biventricular pacing is indicated in patients with a low
cardiac index, which this patient has, AND a low PAOP.
C. correct. administration of an inotrope and vasodilator is indicated for
patients with a low cardiac index and high PAOP.
D. incorrect. furosemide is indicated for patients with an elevated or
normal cardiac index and elevated PAOP.
A 78 year old is reporting abdominal pain and pain in the lower back
radiating to the back of the thighs. which of the following are indicated
to provide the best diagnostic information?
A. a PMH, physical exam, and a CT of the chest and abdomen.
B. an MRI of the spine, physical exam, and an U/S of the abdomen.
C. an U/S of the abdomen, family history and an MRI of the spine.
D. a PMH, physical exam and a CT of the spine.
A. correct. due to his age, sex, and location of the pain, an abdominal
aortic aneurysm (AAA) is suspected. a patient history is needed because
of patients with an aortic aneurysm 90% have a history of systemic HTN.
initial tests recommended for a patient with an AAA are abdominal U/S,
if the patient is unstable, or CT of the chest and abdomen is the patient
is stable.
B, C, & D. incorrect. there is no need for an MRI for a suspected AAA.
,Which of the following describes a murmur that the nurse should
anticipate in a patient with a history of endocarditis, ETOH, and IV drug
abuse?
A. rumbling diastolic murmur that is loudest at the apex.
B. musical systolic murmur that is loudest at the upper right sternal
border.
C. harsh systolic murmur that is loudest at the lower left sternal border.
D. blowing diastolic murmur that is loudest at the upper right sternal
border and radiates to the apex.
A. incorrect. this finding is consistent with mitral stenosis.
B. incorrect. this finding is consistent with aortic stenosis.
C. correct. this finding is consistent with tricuspid regurgitation. the
murmur is usually augmented during inspiration and is reduced in
intensity and duration in the standing position.
D. incorrect. this finding is consistent with aortic regurgitation.
Who would be at greatest risk for thoracic aortic aneurysm? a patient
with:
A. marfan syndrome
B. down's syndrome
C. cystic fibrosis
D. WPW syndrome
A. correct. a thoracic aortic aneurysm is an enlarged weak area of the
aorta. the risk of dissection and rupture is very high when the aortic
dilation reaches 60mm.
B, C, & D. incorrect.
, A patient presents to the ED reporting chest tightness for the last 3
hours. VS are BP 110/78 ; HR 93 ; RR 18 ; SpO2 97%. ECG shows NSR.
which of the following interventions is recommended at this time?
A. 2L of oxygen via nc.
B. 325mg of chewable ASA.
C. initiation of fibrinolytic protocol.
D. enalapril (Vasotec) 5mg IVP.
A. incorrect.
B. correct. ASA is effective in patients with a NSTEMI.
C. incorrect. fibrinolytics are not recommended for the treatment of
patients with a NSTEMI.
D. incorrect.
A patient on prolonged bedrest reports leg pain and swelling. which
procedures should the nurse anticipate?
A. reviewing history for risk factors, doppler U/S and venography.
B. doppler U/S, platelet function and venography.
C. reviewing history for risk factors, platelet function and doppler
ultrasound.
D. doppler U/S, coag studies, and D-Dimer.
A. correct. the patient has risk factors for and is demonstrating
symptoms of a DVT. a review of risk factors should take place. this
patient has been on prolonged bed rest which places the patient at
increased risk of this complication. this diagnosis can be confirmed with
doppler U/S and venogram.
B, C, & D. incorrect. although platelet and coagulation studies may be
useful for treatment, they are not recommended as an initial method for
diagnosis of DVT.
