PSYC 324 PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
| American Public University
1. A care team is comparing several evidence-based options and specifically considers Integrated
dual-diagnosis treatment. Which choice best demonstrates treatment-to-problem matching?
A. Choose Naltrexone for AUD without checking whether it addresses the same treatment target
B. Match Integrated dual-diagnosis treatment to the target situation: a patient with persistent depression and
alcohol use disorder who needs both conditions assessed and treated
C. Choose Methadone for OUD without checking whether it addresses the same treatment target
D. Choose Acamprosate without checking whether it addresses the same treatment target
Correct Answer: B. Match Integrated dual-diagnosis treatment to the target situation: a patient with persistent
depression and alcohol use disorder who needs both conditions assessed and treated
Explanation: Appropriate matching means using Integrated dual-diagnosis treatment when a patient with persistent
depression and alcohol use disorder who needs both conditions assessed and treated. Evidence-based status alone
does not make every intervention suitable for every substance or clinical goal.
2. Which implication follows most logically from the concept of Universal prevention?
A. selective approaches can concentrate resources where risk is higher while avoiding diagnostic labeling
B. early individualized support can interrupt progression before greater impairment develops
C. early prevention can reduce exposure to modifiable risk factors and delay initiation
D. population-wide approaches can change norms and skills without requiring individual risk screening
Correct Answer: D. population-wide approaches can change norms and skills without requiring individual risk
screening
Explanation: The strongest implication is that population-wide approaches can change norms and skills without
requiring individual risk screening. This follows directly from the meaning of Universal prevention and avoids
overgeneralizing beyond the evidence.
3. Which statement best applies a public-health or social-context principle to Erythropoietin misuse?
A. the absence of a classic euphoric high does not mean a substance cannot produce compulsive misuse or
dependence
B. a drug may be misused in sport for weight categories or concealment rather than for direct performance
enhancement
C. performance enhancement can involve physiologic manipulation even when a substance is not intoxicating
D. anti-doping programs distinguish prohibited methods from ordinary therapeutic care
Correct Answer: C. performance enhancement can involve physiologic manipulation even when a substance is
not intoxicating
Explanation: The best application is that performance enhancement can involve physiologic manipulation even
when a substance is not intoxicating. Social availability and legal status influence behavior, but they do not
substitute for pharmacologic and clinical risk assessment.
,4. Which mistake would most undermine proper use of Peer recovery specialist?
A. assuming the word natural guarantees purity, safety, or legal status in sport
B. interpreting any laboratory signal without chain-of-custody or confirmatory standards
C. declaring a treatment effective solely because people remained enrolled
D. expecting a peer worker to replace medical management of withdrawal or psychiatric emergencies
Correct Answer: D. expecting a peer worker to replace medical management of withdrawal or psychiatric
emergencies
Explanation: The problematic step is expecting a peer worker to replace medical management of withdrawal or
psychiatric emergencies. A sound approach recognizes that a trained person who uses lived recovery experience and
formal support skills to help others navigate recovery.
5. Which distinction about Motivational interviewing is most accurate?
A. it avoids fragmented plans in which one team ignores the other condition
B. it emphasizes autonomy and change talk rather than therapist-driven argument
C. developmental treatment differs from simply applying an adult individual therapy without modification
D. housing support addresses environmental stability rather than directly changing receptor function or
withdrawal
Correct Answer: B. it emphasizes autonomy and change talk rather than therapist-driven argument
Explanation: The important distinction is that it emphasizes autonomy and change talk rather than therapist-driven
argument. Understanding how treatments differ prevents false either-or choices and mechanism errors.
6. Which classification most accurately describes Buprenorphine?
A. rapidly acting illicit opioid
B. very potent synthetic opioid
C. partial mu-opioid agonist medication for OUD
D. long-acting full opioid agonist used clinically for OUD and pain
Correct Answer: C. partial mu-opioid agonist medication for OUD
Explanation: Buprenorphine is best classified as partial mu-opioid agonist medication for OUD. Classification
helps organize likely effects but does not replace attention to dose, route, individual vulnerability, and interactions.
7. Which situation is the best match for using Buprenorphine for OUD?
A. a smoker seeking a non-nicotine cessation medication when clinically appropriate
B. ongoing treatment of opioid use disorder in outpatient or other appropriate settings
C. a tobacco user seeking an effective non-nicotine cessation medication
D. a dependent drinker at risk for seizures or delirium during cessation
Correct Answer: B. ongoing treatment of opioid use disorder in outpatient or other appropriate settings
Explanation: The best match is ongoing treatment of opioid use disorder in outpatient or other appropriate settings.
Treatment selection should fit diagnosis, severity, safety, preference, and practical access.
,8. A program or study does the following: an athlete chooses products with independent certification to lower
contamination risk. Which concept is being used most directly?
A. Relative risk
B. Dietary supplement quality assurance
C. HIV and hepatitis services in SUD care
D. Treatment access
Correct Answer: B. Dietary supplement quality assurance
Explanation: This application reflects Dietary supplement quality assurance because use of ingredient verification,
third-party testing, and evidence review to reduce uncertainty about supplement purity and content.
9. Which statement most usefully distinguishes Synthetic cathinones from a commonly confused substance or
concept?
A. synthetic cathinones are stimulants and are pharmacologically different from synthetic cannabinoids despite
similar marketing as novel psychoactive substances
B. GHB is a depressant, not a stimulant like MDMA, even though both may appear in nightlife settings
C. MDMA differs from classic hallucinogens by combining prominent monoamine-releasing stimulant and
empathogenic effects
D. synthetic cannabinoids are not simply a safer or standardized form of cannabis because their potency and
composition can vary widely
Correct Answer: A. synthetic cathinones are stimulants and are pharmacologically different from synthetic
cannabinoids despite similar marketing as novel psychoactive substances
Explanation: The key distinction is that synthetic cathinones are stimulants and are pharmacologically different
from synthetic cannabinoids despite similar marketing as novel psychoactive substances. Examining mechanism,
time course, and purpose of use is often more informative than relying on street labels.
10. Which term is best defined as interconnected brain systems involved in motivation, reinforcement,
learning, and salience that are altered by addictive drugs?
A. Positive reinforcement
B. Biopsychosocial model
C. Reward circuitry
D. Negative reinforcement
Correct Answer: C. Reward circuitry
Explanation: Reward circuitry means interconnected brain systems involved in motivation, reinforcement,
learning, and salience that are altered by addictive drugs. The concept should be applied precisely because nearby
terms often answer a different clinical or research question.
11. Which statement best distinguishes Recovery-oriented system of care from a related idea?
A. recovery extends beyond symptom reduction or a single episode of treatment
B. high sensitivity minimizes false negatives, while high specificity minimizes false positives
C. retention is an important process outcome but does not by itself prove abstinence or recovery
D. a medication can be prescribed appropriately yet still interact dangerously with age-related vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A. recovery extends beyond symptom reduction or a single episode of treatment
Explanation: The key distinction is that recovery extends beyond symptom reduction or a single episode of
treatment. The difference matters when interpreting population data, testing, or prevention strategies.
, 12. Which statement best summarizes the evidence-based role of Cognitive-behavioral therapy?
A. community access and bystander use can prevent fatal opioid overdose
B. CBT has evidence across multiple SUDs and is often combined with medications when available
C. appropriate withdrawal management reduces risk of seizures and delirium and creates a bridge to ongoing
AUD care
D. NRT increases quit success, especially when combined with counseling
Correct Answer: B. CBT has evidence across multiple SUDs and is often combined with medications when
available
Explanation: The best summary is that CBT has evidence across multiple SUDs and is often combined with
medications when available. The intervention should be integrated with other appropriate medical, behavioral, and
recovery supports.
13. Which term is best defined as a framework that explains substance problems through interacting
biological, psychological, and social influences?
A. Positive reinforcement
B. Biopsychosocial model
C. Neuroadaptation
D. Cognitive model of addiction
Correct Answer: B. Biopsychosocial model
Explanation: Biopsychosocial model means a framework that explains substance problems through interacting
biological, psychological, and social influences. The concept should be applied precisely because nearby terms
often answer a different clinical or research question.
14. Which conclusion follows most reasonably from Confirmatory drug testing?
A. long-term outcomes improve when people can access supports as needs change
B. data should trigger careful review, communication, and risk mitigation rather than automatic conclusions
C. test interpretation should consider timing, specimen, medications, and the question being asked
D. timely surveillance guides resource allocation and hypothesis generation
Correct Answer: C. test interpretation should consider timing, specimen, medications, and the question being
asked
Explanation: The best conclusion is that test interpretation should consider timing, specimen, medications, and the
question being asked. It applies the concept without claiming more than the available evidence supports.
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
| American Public University
1. A care team is comparing several evidence-based options and specifically considers Integrated
dual-diagnosis treatment. Which choice best demonstrates treatment-to-problem matching?
A. Choose Naltrexone for AUD without checking whether it addresses the same treatment target
B. Match Integrated dual-diagnosis treatment to the target situation: a patient with persistent depression and
alcohol use disorder who needs both conditions assessed and treated
C. Choose Methadone for OUD without checking whether it addresses the same treatment target
D. Choose Acamprosate without checking whether it addresses the same treatment target
Correct Answer: B. Match Integrated dual-diagnosis treatment to the target situation: a patient with persistent
depression and alcohol use disorder who needs both conditions assessed and treated
Explanation: Appropriate matching means using Integrated dual-diagnosis treatment when a patient with persistent
depression and alcohol use disorder who needs both conditions assessed and treated. Evidence-based status alone
does not make every intervention suitable for every substance or clinical goal.
2. Which implication follows most logically from the concept of Universal prevention?
A. selective approaches can concentrate resources where risk is higher while avoiding diagnostic labeling
B. early individualized support can interrupt progression before greater impairment develops
C. early prevention can reduce exposure to modifiable risk factors and delay initiation
D. population-wide approaches can change norms and skills without requiring individual risk screening
Correct Answer: D. population-wide approaches can change norms and skills without requiring individual risk
screening
Explanation: The strongest implication is that population-wide approaches can change norms and skills without
requiring individual risk screening. This follows directly from the meaning of Universal prevention and avoids
overgeneralizing beyond the evidence.
3. Which statement best applies a public-health or social-context principle to Erythropoietin misuse?
A. the absence of a classic euphoric high does not mean a substance cannot produce compulsive misuse or
dependence
B. a drug may be misused in sport for weight categories or concealment rather than for direct performance
enhancement
C. performance enhancement can involve physiologic manipulation even when a substance is not intoxicating
D. anti-doping programs distinguish prohibited methods from ordinary therapeutic care
Correct Answer: C. performance enhancement can involve physiologic manipulation even when a substance is
not intoxicating
Explanation: The best application is that performance enhancement can involve physiologic manipulation even
when a substance is not intoxicating. Social availability and legal status influence behavior, but they do not
substitute for pharmacologic and clinical risk assessment.
,4. Which mistake would most undermine proper use of Peer recovery specialist?
A. assuming the word natural guarantees purity, safety, or legal status in sport
B. interpreting any laboratory signal without chain-of-custody or confirmatory standards
C. declaring a treatment effective solely because people remained enrolled
D. expecting a peer worker to replace medical management of withdrawal or psychiatric emergencies
Correct Answer: D. expecting a peer worker to replace medical management of withdrawal or psychiatric
emergencies
Explanation: The problematic step is expecting a peer worker to replace medical management of withdrawal or
psychiatric emergencies. A sound approach recognizes that a trained person who uses lived recovery experience and
formal support skills to help others navigate recovery.
5. Which distinction about Motivational interviewing is most accurate?
A. it avoids fragmented plans in which one team ignores the other condition
B. it emphasizes autonomy and change talk rather than therapist-driven argument
C. developmental treatment differs from simply applying an adult individual therapy without modification
D. housing support addresses environmental stability rather than directly changing receptor function or
withdrawal
Correct Answer: B. it emphasizes autonomy and change talk rather than therapist-driven argument
Explanation: The important distinction is that it emphasizes autonomy and change talk rather than therapist-driven
argument. Understanding how treatments differ prevents false either-or choices and mechanism errors.
6. Which classification most accurately describes Buprenorphine?
A. rapidly acting illicit opioid
B. very potent synthetic opioid
C. partial mu-opioid agonist medication for OUD
D. long-acting full opioid agonist used clinically for OUD and pain
Correct Answer: C. partial mu-opioid agonist medication for OUD
Explanation: Buprenorphine is best classified as partial mu-opioid agonist medication for OUD. Classification
helps organize likely effects but does not replace attention to dose, route, individual vulnerability, and interactions.
7. Which situation is the best match for using Buprenorphine for OUD?
A. a smoker seeking a non-nicotine cessation medication when clinically appropriate
B. ongoing treatment of opioid use disorder in outpatient or other appropriate settings
C. a tobacco user seeking an effective non-nicotine cessation medication
D. a dependent drinker at risk for seizures or delirium during cessation
Correct Answer: B. ongoing treatment of opioid use disorder in outpatient or other appropriate settings
Explanation: The best match is ongoing treatment of opioid use disorder in outpatient or other appropriate settings.
Treatment selection should fit diagnosis, severity, safety, preference, and practical access.
,8. A program or study does the following: an athlete chooses products with independent certification to lower
contamination risk. Which concept is being used most directly?
A. Relative risk
B. Dietary supplement quality assurance
C. HIV and hepatitis services in SUD care
D. Treatment access
Correct Answer: B. Dietary supplement quality assurance
Explanation: This application reflects Dietary supplement quality assurance because use of ingredient verification,
third-party testing, and evidence review to reduce uncertainty about supplement purity and content.
9. Which statement most usefully distinguishes Synthetic cathinones from a commonly confused substance or
concept?
A. synthetic cathinones are stimulants and are pharmacologically different from synthetic cannabinoids despite
similar marketing as novel psychoactive substances
B. GHB is a depressant, not a stimulant like MDMA, even though both may appear in nightlife settings
C. MDMA differs from classic hallucinogens by combining prominent monoamine-releasing stimulant and
empathogenic effects
D. synthetic cannabinoids are not simply a safer or standardized form of cannabis because their potency and
composition can vary widely
Correct Answer: A. synthetic cathinones are stimulants and are pharmacologically different from synthetic
cannabinoids despite similar marketing as novel psychoactive substances
Explanation: The key distinction is that synthetic cathinones are stimulants and are pharmacologically different
from synthetic cannabinoids despite similar marketing as novel psychoactive substances. Examining mechanism,
time course, and purpose of use is often more informative than relying on street labels.
10. Which term is best defined as interconnected brain systems involved in motivation, reinforcement,
learning, and salience that are altered by addictive drugs?
A. Positive reinforcement
B. Biopsychosocial model
C. Reward circuitry
D. Negative reinforcement
Correct Answer: C. Reward circuitry
Explanation: Reward circuitry means interconnected brain systems involved in motivation, reinforcement,
learning, and salience that are altered by addictive drugs. The concept should be applied precisely because nearby
terms often answer a different clinical or research question.
11. Which statement best distinguishes Recovery-oriented system of care from a related idea?
A. recovery extends beyond symptom reduction or a single episode of treatment
B. high sensitivity minimizes false negatives, while high specificity minimizes false positives
C. retention is an important process outcome but does not by itself prove abstinence or recovery
D. a medication can be prescribed appropriately yet still interact dangerously with age-related vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A. recovery extends beyond symptom reduction or a single episode of treatment
Explanation: The key distinction is that recovery extends beyond symptom reduction or a single episode of
treatment. The difference matters when interpreting population data, testing, or prevention strategies.
, 12. Which statement best summarizes the evidence-based role of Cognitive-behavioral therapy?
A. community access and bystander use can prevent fatal opioid overdose
B. CBT has evidence across multiple SUDs and is often combined with medications when available
C. appropriate withdrawal management reduces risk of seizures and delirium and creates a bridge to ongoing
AUD care
D. NRT increases quit success, especially when combined with counseling
Correct Answer: B. CBT has evidence across multiple SUDs and is often combined with medications when
available
Explanation: The best summary is that CBT has evidence across multiple SUDs and is often combined with
medications when available. The intervention should be integrated with other appropriate medical, behavioral, and
recovery supports.
13. Which term is best defined as a framework that explains substance problems through interacting
biological, psychological, and social influences?
A. Positive reinforcement
B. Biopsychosocial model
C. Neuroadaptation
D. Cognitive model of addiction
Correct Answer: B. Biopsychosocial model
Explanation: Biopsychosocial model means a framework that explains substance problems through interacting
biological, psychological, and social influences. The concept should be applied precisely because nearby terms
often answer a different clinical or research question.
14. Which conclusion follows most reasonably from Confirmatory drug testing?
A. long-term outcomes improve when people can access supports as needs change
B. data should trigger careful review, communication, and risk mitigation rather than automatic conclusions
C. test interpretation should consider timing, specimen, medications, and the question being asked
D. timely surveillance guides resource allocation and hypothesis generation
Correct Answer: C. test interpretation should consider timing, specimen, medications, and the question being
asked
Explanation: The best conclusion is that test interpretation should consider timing, specimen, medications, and the
question being asked. It applies the concept without claiming more than the available evidence supports.
