ATI RN Basic Care & Comfort NCLEX-RN
Practice Questions 2026/2027 | ATI Basic
Care & Comfort Study Guide, Nursing Practice
Questions & Answers, Hygiene, Nutrition,
Mobility, Elimination, Rest & Sleep, Comfort
Measures, Safety & Clinical Judgment Exam
Prep
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral
feeding through a client's nasogastric tube. Which position should the
nurse place the client in during the feeding and for one hour afterward?
A. Supine position
B. Left lateral position
C. High-Fowler's position
D. Trendelenburg position
CORRECT ANSWER: C. High-Fowler's position
Rationale: High-Fowler's position (45–90 degrees) uses gravity to facilitate
gastric emptying and reduces the risk of aspiration during and after enteral
feedings. Supine and Trendelenburg positions increase aspiration risk,
while left lateral is not the recommended position for feeding
administration .
Question 2: A client with an indwelling urinary catheter reports bladder
discomfort and a sensation of needing to void. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Irrigate the catheter with sterile saline
B. Check for kinks or obstructions in the tubing
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
D. Remove the catheter and encourage voiding
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Check for kinks or obstructions in the tubing
Rationale: The first nursing action is to assess for mechanical causes of
catheter malfunction, such as kinks or obstruction, which can cause
bladder distention and discomfort. Irrigation, provider notification, and
catheter removal are premature until the tubing is assessed .
Question 3: A nurse is providing oral care to an unconscious client.
Which action is most important to prevent aspiration?
,A. Use a toothbrush and scrub all tooth surfaces vigorously
B. Position the client in a side-lying position with suction ready
C. Apply mineral oil to the lips and leave the mouth open to air dry
D. Place the client supine with the head elevated 90 degrees
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Position the client in a side-lying position with
suction ready
Rationale: An unconscious client lacks a gag reflex and is at high risk for
aspiration. Side-lying positioning allows secretions to drain by gravity, and
having suction immediately available enables prompt removal of fluids if
needed. Supine positioning increases aspiration risk, and mineral oil can
cause lipoid pneumonia if aspirated .
Question 4: A client who has been on bed rest for five days is preparing
to ambulate. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to postpone
ambulation and notify the provider?
A. Client reports slight lightheadedness when sitting on the edge of the bed
B. Pedal pulses are 2+ bilaterally with capillary refill less than 3 seconds
C. Orthostatic blood pressure shows a 25 mm Hg drop in systolic pressure
upon standing
D. Client states, "I am a little tired today but willing to try"
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Orthostatic blood pressure shows a 25 mm Hg
drop in systolic pressure upon standing
Rationale: A systolic drop of 20 mm Hg or more upon standing indicates
orthostatic hypotension. Ambulating a client with significant orthostasis
increases fall risk and may compromise cerebral perfusion. Transient
lightheadedness during initial dangling is common, and normal pedal
pulses are reassuring .
Question 5: A client with urinary incontinence is at risk for skin
breakdown. Which intervention best protects the skin from moisture-
associated damage?
A. Apply a moisture barrier cream after each episode of incontinence
B. Use a heat lamp to dry the perineal area after cleansing
C. Place an absorbent pad under the client and change it only when
saturated
D. Wash the skin with hot water and antibacterial soap twice daily
,CORRECT ANSWER: A. Apply a moisture barrier cream after each
episode of incontinence
Rationale: A moisture barrier cream containing zinc oxide or dimethicone
creates a protective film that repels moisture and prevents maceration.
Heat lamps can burn fragile skin, leaving wet pads promotes breakdown,
and hot water strips natural oils .
Question 6: During a bed bath, a client with moderate dementia
becomes agitated and strikes out at the nurse. What is the nurse's best
initial response?
A. Restrain the client's hands with soft mitts and continue the bath quickly
B. Stop the bath, step back to ensure safety, and speak in a calm,
reassuring tone
C. Call for additional staff to hold the client down while completing the
bath
D. Ignore the behavior and continue washing the client while humming
softly
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Stop the bath, step back to ensure safety, and
speak in a calm, reassuring tone
Rationale: Agitation during personal care in dementia is often due to fear or
discomfort. The priority is safety for both client and nurse. Stopping the
procedure, creating physical space, and using a calm voice can de-
escalate the situation. Restraints or holding the client down can escalate
agitation and cause injury .
Question 7: A client with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent
feedings should be maintained in which position to prevent aspiration?
A. Supine
B. Semi-Fowler's at 30 degrees
C. High-Fowler's at 45–90 degrees
D. Left lateral decubitus
CORRECT ANSWER: C. High-Fowler's at 45–90 degrees
Rationale: High-Fowler's position (45–90 degrees) is recommended during
and for at least one hour after enteral feedings to use gravity to keep
formula in the stomach and prevent reflux into the lungs. Lower positions
increase aspiration risk .
, Question 8: A client who is 2 days postoperative from abdominal
surgery wants to ambulate. Which assessment finding indicates
readiness for this activity?
A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
C. Client reports dizziness when sitting up
D. Stable vital signs with no dizziness
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Stable vital signs with no dizziness
Rationale: Stable vital signs and absence of dizziness indicate the client
can safely tolerate upright activity. Tachycardia, hypotension, and dizziness
upon position change indicate the client is not ready for ambulation and
may be at risk for falls .
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client with a colostomy whose pouch
is leaking frequently. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Apply a new pouch with a smaller opening
B. Apply a new pouch with a larger opening
C. Apply skin barrier paste around the stoma
D. Apply a new pouch and tape the edges securely
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Apply skin barrier paste around the stoma
Rationale: Skin barrier paste creates a seal around the stoma to fill gaps
and prevent leakage. A smaller opening can cause trauma, a larger opening
can cause skin breakdown, and taping does not address the underlying
seal issue .
Question 10: A client has a pressure injury with yellow slough and
moderate drainage. Which dressing type is most appropriate?
A. Dry gauze dressing
B. Hydrocolloid dressing
C. Alginate dressing
D. Transparent film dressing
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Alginate dressing
Rationale: Alginate dressings are highly absorbent and appropriate for
wounds with moderate to heavy drainage. Dry gauze adheres to slough,
hydrocolloid is for light drainage, and transparent film is for dry wounds .
Practice Questions 2026/2027 | ATI Basic
Care & Comfort Study Guide, Nursing Practice
Questions & Answers, Hygiene, Nutrition,
Mobility, Elimination, Rest & Sleep, Comfort
Measures, Safety & Clinical Judgment Exam
Prep
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral
feeding through a client's nasogastric tube. Which position should the
nurse place the client in during the feeding and for one hour afterward?
A. Supine position
B. Left lateral position
C. High-Fowler's position
D. Trendelenburg position
CORRECT ANSWER: C. High-Fowler's position
Rationale: High-Fowler's position (45–90 degrees) uses gravity to facilitate
gastric emptying and reduces the risk of aspiration during and after enteral
feedings. Supine and Trendelenburg positions increase aspiration risk,
while left lateral is not the recommended position for feeding
administration .
Question 2: A client with an indwelling urinary catheter reports bladder
discomfort and a sensation of needing to void. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Irrigate the catheter with sterile saline
B. Check for kinks or obstructions in the tubing
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
D. Remove the catheter and encourage voiding
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Check for kinks or obstructions in the tubing
Rationale: The first nursing action is to assess for mechanical causes of
catheter malfunction, such as kinks or obstruction, which can cause
bladder distention and discomfort. Irrigation, provider notification, and
catheter removal are premature until the tubing is assessed .
Question 3: A nurse is providing oral care to an unconscious client.
Which action is most important to prevent aspiration?
,A. Use a toothbrush and scrub all tooth surfaces vigorously
B. Position the client in a side-lying position with suction ready
C. Apply mineral oil to the lips and leave the mouth open to air dry
D. Place the client supine with the head elevated 90 degrees
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Position the client in a side-lying position with
suction ready
Rationale: An unconscious client lacks a gag reflex and is at high risk for
aspiration. Side-lying positioning allows secretions to drain by gravity, and
having suction immediately available enables prompt removal of fluids if
needed. Supine positioning increases aspiration risk, and mineral oil can
cause lipoid pneumonia if aspirated .
Question 4: A client who has been on bed rest for five days is preparing
to ambulate. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to postpone
ambulation and notify the provider?
A. Client reports slight lightheadedness when sitting on the edge of the bed
B. Pedal pulses are 2+ bilaterally with capillary refill less than 3 seconds
C. Orthostatic blood pressure shows a 25 mm Hg drop in systolic pressure
upon standing
D. Client states, "I am a little tired today but willing to try"
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Orthostatic blood pressure shows a 25 mm Hg
drop in systolic pressure upon standing
Rationale: A systolic drop of 20 mm Hg or more upon standing indicates
orthostatic hypotension. Ambulating a client with significant orthostasis
increases fall risk and may compromise cerebral perfusion. Transient
lightheadedness during initial dangling is common, and normal pedal
pulses are reassuring .
Question 5: A client with urinary incontinence is at risk for skin
breakdown. Which intervention best protects the skin from moisture-
associated damage?
A. Apply a moisture barrier cream after each episode of incontinence
B. Use a heat lamp to dry the perineal area after cleansing
C. Place an absorbent pad under the client and change it only when
saturated
D. Wash the skin with hot water and antibacterial soap twice daily
,CORRECT ANSWER: A. Apply a moisture barrier cream after each
episode of incontinence
Rationale: A moisture barrier cream containing zinc oxide or dimethicone
creates a protective film that repels moisture and prevents maceration.
Heat lamps can burn fragile skin, leaving wet pads promotes breakdown,
and hot water strips natural oils .
Question 6: During a bed bath, a client with moderate dementia
becomes agitated and strikes out at the nurse. What is the nurse's best
initial response?
A. Restrain the client's hands with soft mitts and continue the bath quickly
B. Stop the bath, step back to ensure safety, and speak in a calm,
reassuring tone
C. Call for additional staff to hold the client down while completing the
bath
D. Ignore the behavior and continue washing the client while humming
softly
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Stop the bath, step back to ensure safety, and
speak in a calm, reassuring tone
Rationale: Agitation during personal care in dementia is often due to fear or
discomfort. The priority is safety for both client and nurse. Stopping the
procedure, creating physical space, and using a calm voice can de-
escalate the situation. Restraints or holding the client down can escalate
agitation and cause injury .
Question 7: A client with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent
feedings should be maintained in which position to prevent aspiration?
A. Supine
B. Semi-Fowler's at 30 degrees
C. High-Fowler's at 45–90 degrees
D. Left lateral decubitus
CORRECT ANSWER: C. High-Fowler's at 45–90 degrees
Rationale: High-Fowler's position (45–90 degrees) is recommended during
and for at least one hour after enteral feedings to use gravity to keep
formula in the stomach and prevent reflux into the lungs. Lower positions
increase aspiration risk .
, Question 8: A client who is 2 days postoperative from abdominal
surgery wants to ambulate. Which assessment finding indicates
readiness for this activity?
A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
C. Client reports dizziness when sitting up
D. Stable vital signs with no dizziness
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Stable vital signs with no dizziness
Rationale: Stable vital signs and absence of dizziness indicate the client
can safely tolerate upright activity. Tachycardia, hypotension, and dizziness
upon position change indicate the client is not ready for ambulation and
may be at risk for falls .
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client with a colostomy whose pouch
is leaking frequently. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Apply a new pouch with a smaller opening
B. Apply a new pouch with a larger opening
C. Apply skin barrier paste around the stoma
D. Apply a new pouch and tape the edges securely
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Apply skin barrier paste around the stoma
Rationale: Skin barrier paste creates a seal around the stoma to fill gaps
and prevent leakage. A smaller opening can cause trauma, a larger opening
can cause skin breakdown, and taping does not address the underlying
seal issue .
Question 10: A client has a pressure injury with yellow slough and
moderate drainage. Which dressing type is most appropriate?
A. Dry gauze dressing
B. Hydrocolloid dressing
C. Alginate dressing
D. Transparent film dressing
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Alginate dressing
Rationale: Alginate dressings are highly absorbent and appropriate for
wounds with moderate to heavy drainage. Dry gauze adheres to slough,
hydrocolloid is for light drainage, and transparent film is for dry wounds .
