NURS ADV PHARM 5334 UTA EXAM 1 |
PHARMACOLOGY MODULE 1,2 & 3 EXAM REVIEW |
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2026/2027 UPDATES
Module 1: Prescribing Basics & Pharmacokinetics
1. What regulates prescriptive authority for Nurse
Practitioners in Texas?
A. The DEA
B. The State Board of Nursing (BON) ✅
C. The FDA
D. The Texas Medical Board
Rationale: The State Board of Nursing sets the rules for
prescriptive authority, while the DEA handles controlled
substances. Texas has restricted prescriptive authority, requiring
APRNs to have a prescriptive authority agreement (PAA) with a
supervising physician.
2. Which of the following is a key element required on a
proper prescription?
A. Patient's social security number
B. Provider's home address
C. DEA number (for CII-V) ✅
D. Patient's insurance information
Rationale: A proper prescription must include the provider
name/address/phone, DEA number (for controlled substances),
patient name/DOB/address/weight, date, drug name/strength, SIG
(directions), quantity, refills, and signature.
3. Which drug schedule has the highest abuse potential
and no accepted medical use?
A. Schedule I ✅
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Rationale: Schedule I drugs (e.g., heroin, LSD, marijuana) have
no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse.
,Schedule II drugs (e.g., hydrocodone, oxycodone) have high
abuse potential but accepted medical use.
4. Pharmacodynamics is best defined as:
A. The impact of the body on drugs
B. The impact of drugs on the body ✅
C. The study of drug absorption
D. The study of drug excretion
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on
the body, including the nature and intensity of the response, often
via receptor interactions.
5. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major
pharmacokinetic processes?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Pharmacodynamics ✅
Rationale: The four major pharmacokinetic processes are
absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME).
Pharmacodynamics is the study of the drug's effect on the body.
6. What is a substrate in drug metabolism?
A. A drug that inhibits an enzyme
B. A drug that induces an enzyme
C. A drug acted upon by an enzyme ✅
D. A drug that binds to a receptor
Rationale: A substrate is a drug that is metabolized by an
enzyme (e.g., CYP3A4 metabolizes statins). Inducers speed up
metabolism, while inhibitors slow it down.
7. The Beer's Criteria is a list of drugs to avoid in which
population?
A. Pediatric patients
B. Pregnant women
C. Older adults ✅
D. Breastfeeding mothers
Rationale: The Beer's Criteria lists medications that are
,potentially inappropriate for older adults due to high risk of
adverse effects like falls and confusion.
8. Which of the following is an example of tall man
lettering?
A. DOPamine vs. DOBUTamine ✅
B. HYDROcodone vs. OXYcodone
C. METformin vs. METRONIDAZOLE
D. LISinopril vs. LOSartan
Rationale: Tall man lettering is used to distinguish
look-alike/sound-alike drugs, such as DOPamine vs. DOBUTamine,
to reduce medication errors.
9. Which route of administration bypasses the first-pass
effect?
A. Oral
B. Intravenous ✅
C. Rectal
D. Enteral
Rationale: Intravenous administration bypasses the GI tract and
liver, delivering the drug directly into systemic circulation, thus
avoiding first-pass metabolism.
10. What is the primary organ responsible for drug
metabolism?
A. Kidney
B. Liver ✅
C. Lung
D. Spleen
Rationale: The liver is the primary site of drug metabolism,
primarily via the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.
11. Which cytochrome P450 enzyme is involved in the
metabolism of the largest number of drugs?
A. CYP3A4 ✅
B. CYP2D6
C. CYP2C9
D. CYP1A2
, Rationale: CYP3A4 metabolizes approximately 50% of all drugs,
making it the most important enzyme for drug metabolism.
12. What is the first-pass effect?
A. Metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic
circulation ✅
B. Excretion of a drug in the bile
C. Binding of a drug to plasma proteins
D. Movement of a drug across the blood-brain barrier
Rationale: Orally administered drugs pass through the portal
circulation and are metabolized by the liver before reaching
systemic circulation, reducing bioavailability.
13. Bioavailability is defined as:
A. The rate of drug absorption
B. The extent of drug that becomes available to the body after
absorption ✅
C. The extent of protein binding
D. The volume of distribution
Rationale: Bioavailability is the fraction of an administered dose
that reaches systemic circulation unchanged. IV administration
has 100% bioavailability.
14. What is the volume of distribution (Vd)?
A. The theoretical volume into which a drug distributes in the
body ✅
B. The volume of blood cleared of drug per unit time
C. The volume of urine produced per hour
D. The volume of drug absorbed from the GI tract
Rationale: Vd relates the amount of drug in the body to its
plasma concentration.
15. A drug with a high volume of distribution is likely to:
A. Be extensively distributed into tissues ✅
B. Remain primarily in the plasma
C. Be rapidly excreted
D. Have a short half-life
Rationale: High Vd indicates extensive tissue distribution.
PHARMACOLOGY MODULE 1,2 & 3 EXAM REVIEW |
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2026/2027 UPDATES
Module 1: Prescribing Basics & Pharmacokinetics
1. What regulates prescriptive authority for Nurse
Practitioners in Texas?
A. The DEA
B. The State Board of Nursing (BON) ✅
C. The FDA
D. The Texas Medical Board
Rationale: The State Board of Nursing sets the rules for
prescriptive authority, while the DEA handles controlled
substances. Texas has restricted prescriptive authority, requiring
APRNs to have a prescriptive authority agreement (PAA) with a
supervising physician.
2. Which of the following is a key element required on a
proper prescription?
A. Patient's social security number
B. Provider's home address
C. DEA number (for CII-V) ✅
D. Patient's insurance information
Rationale: A proper prescription must include the provider
name/address/phone, DEA number (for controlled substances),
patient name/DOB/address/weight, date, drug name/strength, SIG
(directions), quantity, refills, and signature.
3. Which drug schedule has the highest abuse potential
and no accepted medical use?
A. Schedule I ✅
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Rationale: Schedule I drugs (e.g., heroin, LSD, marijuana) have
no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse.
,Schedule II drugs (e.g., hydrocodone, oxycodone) have high
abuse potential but accepted medical use.
4. Pharmacodynamics is best defined as:
A. The impact of the body on drugs
B. The impact of drugs on the body ✅
C. The study of drug absorption
D. The study of drug excretion
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on
the body, including the nature and intensity of the response, often
via receptor interactions.
5. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major
pharmacokinetic processes?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Pharmacodynamics ✅
Rationale: The four major pharmacokinetic processes are
absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME).
Pharmacodynamics is the study of the drug's effect on the body.
6. What is a substrate in drug metabolism?
A. A drug that inhibits an enzyme
B. A drug that induces an enzyme
C. A drug acted upon by an enzyme ✅
D. A drug that binds to a receptor
Rationale: A substrate is a drug that is metabolized by an
enzyme (e.g., CYP3A4 metabolizes statins). Inducers speed up
metabolism, while inhibitors slow it down.
7. The Beer's Criteria is a list of drugs to avoid in which
population?
A. Pediatric patients
B. Pregnant women
C. Older adults ✅
D. Breastfeeding mothers
Rationale: The Beer's Criteria lists medications that are
,potentially inappropriate for older adults due to high risk of
adverse effects like falls and confusion.
8. Which of the following is an example of tall man
lettering?
A. DOPamine vs. DOBUTamine ✅
B. HYDROcodone vs. OXYcodone
C. METformin vs. METRONIDAZOLE
D. LISinopril vs. LOSartan
Rationale: Tall man lettering is used to distinguish
look-alike/sound-alike drugs, such as DOPamine vs. DOBUTamine,
to reduce medication errors.
9. Which route of administration bypasses the first-pass
effect?
A. Oral
B. Intravenous ✅
C. Rectal
D. Enteral
Rationale: Intravenous administration bypasses the GI tract and
liver, delivering the drug directly into systemic circulation, thus
avoiding first-pass metabolism.
10. What is the primary organ responsible for drug
metabolism?
A. Kidney
B. Liver ✅
C. Lung
D. Spleen
Rationale: The liver is the primary site of drug metabolism,
primarily via the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.
11. Which cytochrome P450 enzyme is involved in the
metabolism of the largest number of drugs?
A. CYP3A4 ✅
B. CYP2D6
C. CYP2C9
D. CYP1A2
, Rationale: CYP3A4 metabolizes approximately 50% of all drugs,
making it the most important enzyme for drug metabolism.
12. What is the first-pass effect?
A. Metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic
circulation ✅
B. Excretion of a drug in the bile
C. Binding of a drug to plasma proteins
D. Movement of a drug across the blood-brain barrier
Rationale: Orally administered drugs pass through the portal
circulation and are metabolized by the liver before reaching
systemic circulation, reducing bioavailability.
13. Bioavailability is defined as:
A. The rate of drug absorption
B. The extent of drug that becomes available to the body after
absorption ✅
C. The extent of protein binding
D. The volume of distribution
Rationale: Bioavailability is the fraction of an administered dose
that reaches systemic circulation unchanged. IV administration
has 100% bioavailability.
14. What is the volume of distribution (Vd)?
A. The theoretical volume into which a drug distributes in the
body ✅
B. The volume of blood cleared of drug per unit time
C. The volume of urine produced per hour
D. The volume of drug absorbed from the GI tract
Rationale: Vd relates the amount of drug in the body to its
plasma concentration.
15. A drug with a high volume of distribution is likely to:
A. Be extensively distributed into tissues ✅
B. Remain primarily in the plasma
C. Be rapidly excreted
D. Have a short half-life
Rationale: High Vd indicates extensive tissue distribution.
