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PNLE ALL IN PRACTICE EXAMS: 150 Nursing Prioritization, Delegation & Comprehensive Board Exam Questions with Verified Answers & Rationales 2025/2026 – Complete PNLE & NCLEX Study Guide (A+ Guaranteed)

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Title: PNLE ALL IN PRACTICE EXAMS: 150 Nursing Prioritization, Delegation & Board Exam Questions with Verified Answers & Rationales 2025/2026 – Complete PNLE & NCLEX Study Guide (A+ Guaranteed) Description: PNLE ALL IN PRACTICE EXAMS – Nursing Prioritization, Delegation & Comprehensive Board Review Edition This is the ultimate PNLE (Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination) and NCLEX practice exam reviewer for Nursing Prioritization, Delegation, and Comprehensive Nursing Concepts. Containing 150 board-style multiple-choice questions with complete answers, detailed rationales, and test-taking strategies, this document is designed to help nursing students and board exam takers master the most commonly tested concepts in nursing prioritization, delegation, and clinical decision-making. Whether you are preparing for the PNLE, NCLEX-RN, NCLEX-PN, local board exams, or nursing school finals, this practice exam will help you identify weak areas, strengthen your clinical reasoning, and build the confidence needed to pass on your first attempt. WHY THIS REVIEWER IS A MUST-HAVE: 150 High-Yield Questions – Modeled after actual PNLE and NCLEX board exam questions. Complete Answer Keys – Every question includes the correct answer clearly marked. In-Depth Rationales – Learn the "why" behind every answer. Each rationale explains why the correct option is right AND why the other options are incorrect. Test-Taking Strategies – Learn how to eliminate distractors, identify keywords, and apply critical thinking. Comprehensive Topic Coverage – Covers prioritization, delegation, communicable diseases, maternal and child health, psychiatric nursing, pharmacology, legal and ethical issues, and more. Perfect for Self-Study & Group Review – Use as a standalone reviewer or supplement to your lecture notes. Ideal for Filipino Nursing Students – Written with PNLE-style phrasing, terminology, and nursing interventions. Instant Download – Word document format, ready to study immediately. COMPLETE TOPIC BREAKDOWN (150 Questions): UNIT 1: IMMUNIZATION & VACCINE ADMINISTRATION (Questions 1, 8–9, 21, 24, 65) Rubella vaccination and pregnancy precautions Live attenuated virus vaccines Contraindications during pregnancy BCG vaccine – live attenuated bacterial vaccine OPV and measles vaccine storage Tetanus toxoid administration – intramuscular route Vaccine potency and cold chain management EPI immunization schedule TT2, TT3, TT4, TT5 protection rates Measles and OPV storage temperature UNIT 2: COMMUNICABLE DISEASE NURSING (Questions 3–7, 10–15, 22, 25) Rabies – incubation period, hydrophobia, aerophobia Dengue hemorrhagic fever – Rumpel-leede test, capillary fragility Malaria – peripheral blood smear, diagnostic testing Herpes zoster (Shingles) – varicella-zoster virus, chicken pox exposure Rubella – teratogenic effects, isolation precautions Leprosy – BCG vaccination as primary prevention Diphtheria – Klebs-Loeffler bacillus, bacterial toxin Tuberculosis – Mantoux skin test, induration reading, Isoniazid therapy Syphilis – chancre, primary lesion EPI – epidemiological situation basis Communicable disease transmission and prevention UNIT 3: MATERNAL & CHILD HEALTH NURSING (Questions 16–20, 50–64, 66–67, 71–73, 75–76, 79–83, 88) Fast breathing in infants – respiratory rate assessment Dehydration signs – IMCI guidelines Dysentery – Cotrimoxazole first-line treatment Home-made Oresol preparation – salt and sugar ratio Gentian violet – umbilical infections Amniotic fluid weight in third trimester Umbilical cord – two arteries and one vein Naegele's rule – estimated date of birth calculation Iron-rich foods – sources and deficiencies Ectopic pregnancy – immediate surgery Endometritis – Semi-Fowler's position Urinary frequency in pregnancy – ascending uterus pressure Blood loss during first 24 hours post-delivery Prolactin and oxytocin – milk production and ejection Stages of labor – second stage, complete cervical dilation Nitrazine paper test – rupture of membranes Amniotomy – fetal heart tone monitoring Postpartum hemorrhage – uterine atony Fundal height – 2nd postpartum day assessment Home delivery criteria – normal findings ASIN Law – R.A. 8172 Sambong – herbal medicine for urolithiasis Postpartum visits – 2-4 weeks after delivery Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM) – 98% protection IMCI case management process Pneumonia follow-up – after 2 days Finger-thumb opposition – 9 months Primary teeth – age in months minus 6 Acetylcysteine – Tylenol poisoning antidote Habit training – moderate intellectual disability Polyhydramnios – congenital GI anomaly Celiac disease – gluten-free diet (rice) Oral medication administration – choices for children Tooth brushing – 6 years old Ribavirin (Virazole) – RSV treatment via oxygen tent Breastfeeding – EO 51 Milk Code Family planning methods – pills, tubal ligation, LAM, IUD UNIT 4: NURSING PRIORITIZATION & DELEGATION (Questions 2, 43, 48–49, 98) Mannitol – increased intracranial pressure, osmotic diuretic Physical examination preparation – patient priority Full-thickness burns – airway clearance priority Local inflammatory response – redness and warmth Delegation – tasks that cannot be delegated to non-nurse health workers Changing IV infusions – nursing responsibility Vital signs, transfer, NGT irrigation – delegable tasks Priority setting in nursing care ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization Maslow's hierarchy of needs in nursing UNIT 5: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING & PHYSICAL ASSESSMENT (Questions 39–46, 128, 130, 134–136, 140–142) Objective data – overt, observable, measurable Subjective data – covert, verbal reports Breast palpation – supine position Breast self-examination – 7 days after menstruation Kardex – flip-over card at nursing station Thoracentesis – side lying, unaffected side Abdominal distension – percussion Ototoxicity – 8th cranial nerve damage Circulatory constriction – blanching, cyanosis Abdominal pain assessment – symptomatic quadrant last Oral temperature – 3 minutes Osteoarthritis – age as most significant risk factor Vertigo – inner ear problem Weber's test – affected side by bone conduction Myasthenia gravis – edrophonium (Tensilon) test Guillain-Barré Syndrome – respiratory assessment Intracranial pressure – earliest sign, respiratory goal Atrial fibrillation – thrombus formation Breast self-examination – post-hysterectomy UNIT 6: PHARMACOLOGY & MEDICATION ADMINISTRATION (Questions 2, 14, 77, 103, 112–113, 128, 131) Mannitol – osmotic diuretic, increased urinary output Isoniazid (INH) – peripheral neuropathy, Vitamin B6 Acetylcysteine – Tylenol poisoning antidote Diazepam (Valium) – cocaine withdrawal Ataractics – antipsychotics Antidepressants – mood elevators Colchicine – acute gout attack Ototoxicity – 8th cranial nerve IV flow rate calculation – drops per minute Drug classification and indications UNIT 7: PSYCHIATRIC NURSING (Questions 47, 99, 101–123) Hallucinogens – dilated pupils Meditation and prayer – respect client's spiritual practices Empathy – entering into another's feelings Nurse-patient relationship – termination phase Cocaine withdrawal – Diazepam Cocaine – psychostimulant classification Poverty – risk factor for mental illness Crisis characteristics – self-limiting, unique Freud's psychosexual stages – anal stage, temper tantrums Ego development – infancy Anorexia nervosa – primary gain, nursing diagnosis, improvement indicators Antipsychotics – ataractics, psychic energizers Antidepressants – mood elevators Alzheimer's disease – simplify environment Autism – diagnosed at 3 years, withdrawal ECT – most common indication, depression Gestalt therapy – here and now Cognitive therapy – changing irrational thoughts Bipolar I disorder – manic phase nutrition, finger foods Depression – finger painting activity Introjection – defense mechanism in severe depression Self-mutilation – overcoming insecurity Cystitis – coffee as bladder irritant Renal calculi – strain urine, analgesics Renal failure – low protein, low sodium, low potassium diet Dialysis – cannot correct decreased hemoglobin UNIT 8: MATERNAL & CHILD HEALTH – NEWBORN & INFANT CARE (Questions 16, 75–76, 81–83) Fast breathing in 3-week-old infant Finger-thumb opposition – 9 months Primary teeth – age in months minus 6 Oral medication administration to children Tooth brushing – 6 years old Ribavirin – RSV treatment Breastfeeding – Milk Code (EO 51) UNIT 9: COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING (Questions 68, 74, 88, 105) Community/public health bag – essential equipment Sentrong Sigla Movement – certification program Breastfeeding – EO 51 Milk Code Poverty – risk factor for mental illness Home visit bag technique Community health nursing principles UNIT 10: NURSING MANAGEMENT & LEADERSHIP (Questions 26–32, 36) Budgeting – planning function Schedule – timetable of work days and shifts Motivation – internal force influencing behavior Vision – "To be the leading hospital" Standards – professionally desired norms Negative reinforcement – reprimanding staff Close-ended questions – survey method Inductive reasoning – generalizations from observations Risk-benefit ratio – research ethics Element – individual/object in a population Organizational chart – structure of organization Delegation and assignment Staffing and scheduling Performance appraisal UNIT 11: LEGAL & ETHICAL ISSUES IN NURSING (Questions 84–87, 89–97, 132, 136–137) Board of Nursing (BON) – ethical standards License revocation – re-issuance after 4 years PRC identification card – information contained Autonomy – self-governance, decision-making Veracity – truthfulness Fidelity – being on time, meeting deadlines Prudence – sound judgment, raising side rails Continuing education – formal vs. informal BSN curriculum – nurse generalist, primary health nurse Medical records disposal – Department of Health Mentally ill patients – consent from parents/legal guardians Trustworthiness – respecting client self-disclosure Patient's chart – inadmissible in court Plaintiff – one filing criminal case DNR order – stay with client, do nothing Force majeure – natural calamity excuse Nursing informatics – ANA recognition, certification Confidentiality and privacy Informed consent Patient rights and advocacy UNIT 12: NURSING INFORMATICS (Questions 138–139) ANA recognition of nursing informatics – 1994 First certification of nursing informatics – Technology in nursing practice Electronic health records Data management and informatics UNIT 13: MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING (Questions 124–131, 140–147) Cystitis – coffee as bladder irritant Renal calculi – priority nursing intervention Renal failure – dietary management Dialysis – limitations Ototoxicity – 8th cranial nerve Urinary tract infection – prevention and teaching Circulatory constriction – cast assessment Gout – Colchicine Osteoarthritis – age as risk factor Vertigo – inner ear Weber's test – hearing assessment Myasthenia gravis – Tensilon test Guillain-Barré Syndrome – respiratory assessment Intracranial pressure – earliest sign, respiratory goal Atrial fibrillation – thrombus formation Post-hysterectomy – breast self-examination UNIT 14: NUTRITION & DIET THERAPY (Questions 53, 80, 120, 126) Iron-rich foods – sources and deficiencies Celiac disease – gluten-free diet Bipolar I disorder – manic phase nutrition Renal failure – low protein, low sodium, low potassium Dietary modifications in disease states Nutritional assessment and intervention UNIT 15: EMERGENCY & CRITICAL CARE NURSING (Questions 2, 48, 54, 61, 77, 103, 130, 137, 143–147) Mannitol – increased intracranial pressure Full-thickness burns – airway priority Ectopic pregnancy – immediate surgery Amniotomy – fetal heart tone monitoring Tylenol poisoning – Acetylcysteine Cocaine withdrawal – Diazepam Circulatory constriction – cast assessment DNR order – nursing responsibilities Myasthenia gravis – Tensilon test Guillain-Barré Syndrome – respiratory assessment Intracranial pressure – earliest sign, respiratory goal Atrial fibrillation – thrombus formation Emergency response and prioritization UNIT 16: HEALTH EDUCATION & PATIENT TEACHING (Questions 12, 14, 67, 80, 81, 88, 129) Mantoux skin test – follow-up instructions Isoniazid therapy – patient teaching Sambong – herbal medicine teaching Celiac disease – dietary teaching Oral medication administration – children Breastfeeding – Milk Code Urinary tract infection – prevention teaching Patient education strategies Health promotion and disease prevention UNIT 17: RESEARCH & EVIDENCE-BASED PRACTICE (Questions 33–35) Inductive reasoning – generalizations from observations Risk-benefit ratio – research ethics Element – individual/object in population Research process and methodology Evidence-based nursing practice Data collection and analysis UNIT 18: PROFESSIONAL NURSING PRACTICE (Questions 37–38, 84–87, 94) First college of nursing in the Philippines – UST Florence Nightingale – born in Italy Board of Nursing – ethical standards License revocation – re-issuance after 4 years PRC identification card – information contained BSN curriculum – nurse generalist, primary health nurse Nursing history and milestones Professional organizations – PNA, ANSAP, BON WHO IS THIS FOR? PNLE Board Exam Takers – Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Reviewers – US and international board exams Nursing Students – Undergraduate nursing courses Review Centers – Use as a supplemental practice test Foreign Nurse Licensure Exams – Adaptable to various countries Returning Nurses – Refresher and competency review Nurse Educators – Question bank for classroom quizzes and exams Clinical Instructors – Teaching prioritization and delegation HOW TO USE THIS REVIEWER: Take the exam – Answer all 150 questions without looking at the answers. Check your answers – Use the answer key to score yourself. Read the rationales – Understand why you got questions right or wrong. Identify weak areas – Focus on topics where you scored low. Review and repeat – Retake the exam after studying to measure improvement. Simulate board conditions – Time yourself to build speed and accuracy. DOCUMENT DETAILS: Format: Word Document (DOCX) Pages: 45 Questions: 150 Multiple-Choice Answers: Complete with rationales Language: English Difficulty: PNLE/NCLEX Board Level File Type: Digital Download

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150 Item PNLE Practice Test Questions

1. A woman in a child bearing age receives a rubella vaccination. Nurse Joy
would give her which of the following instructions?
A. Refrain from eating eggs or egg products for 24 hours
B. Avoid having sexual intercourse
C. Don't get pregnant at least 3 months
D. Avoid exposure to sun
Answer: C. Don't get pregnant at least 3 months
Rationale: Rubella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine. It is contraindicated
during pregnancy because of the theoretical risk of teratogenicity. Women should be
advised to avoid pregnancy for at least 3 months after vaccination.




2. Jonas who is diagnosed with encephalitis is under the treatment of
Mannitol. Which of the following patient outcomes indicate to Nurse Ronald
that the treatment of Mannitol has been effective for a patient that has
increased intracranial pressure?
A. Increased urinary output
B. Decreased RR
C. Slowed papillary response
D. Decreased level of consciousness
Answer: A. Increased urinary output
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce increased intracranial
pressure. Effective treatment results in increased urinary output, which indicates that
the medication is drawing fluid out of the brain tissue and excreting it through the
kidneys.




3. Mary asked Nurse Maureen about the incubation period of rabies. Which
statement by the Nurse Maureen is appropriate?
A. Incubation period is 6 months
B. Incubation period is 1 week
C. Incubation period is 1 month
D. Incubation period varies depending on the site of the bite
Answer: D. Incubation period varies depending on the site of the bite

1

,Rationale: The incubation period of rabies varies depending on the site of the bite.
Bites closer to the central nervous system (e.g., face, neck) have shorter incubation
periods, while bites on the extremities have longer incubation periods.




4. Which of the following should Nurse Cherry do first in taking care of a
male client with rabies?
A. Encourage the patient to take a bath
B. Cover IV bottle with brown paper bag
C. Place the patient near the comfort room
D. Place the patient near the door
Answer: B. Cover IV bottle with brown paper bag
Rationale: Clients with rabies have hydrophobia and aerophobia. They are extremely
sensitive to stimuli such as light, sound, and water. Covering the IV bottle with a
brown paper bag minimizes visual stimuli that could trigger spasms.




5. Which of the following is the screening test for dengue hemorrhagic
fever?
A. Complete blood count
B. ELISA
C. Rumpel-leede test
D. Sedimentation rate
Answer: C. Rumpel-leede test
Rationale: The Rumpel-leede test (tourniquet test) is a screening test for dengue
hemorrhagic fever. It assesses capillary fragility, which is increased in DHF.




6. Mr. Dela Rosa is suspected to have malaria after a business trip in
Palawan. The most important diagnostic test in malaria is:
A. WBC count
B. Urinalysis
C. ELISA
D. Peripheral blood smear
Answer: D. Peripheral blood smear
Rationale: The peripheral blood smear is the most important diagnostic test for
malaria. It allows direct visualization of the malaria parasite in the red blood cells.


2

,7. The Nurse supervisor is planning for patient's assignment for the AM
shift. The nurse supervisor avoids assigning which of the following staff
members to a client with herpes zoster?
A. Nurse who never had chicken pox
B. Nurse who never had roseola
C. Nurse who never had german measles
D. Nurse who never had mumps
Answer: A. Nurse who never had chicken pox
Rationale: Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, the same
virus that causes chicken pox. A nurse who has never had chicken pox is susceptible
to infection and should not be assigned to a client with herpes zoster.




8. Clarissa is 7 weeks pregnant. Further examination revealed that she is
susceptible to rubella. When would be the most appropriate for her to
receive rubella immunization?
A. At once
B. During 2nd trimester
C. During 3rd trimester
D. After the delivery of the baby
Answer: D. After the delivery of the baby
Rationale: Rubella immunization is contraindicated during pregnancy because it is a
live attenuated vaccine. The most appropriate time to administer it is after delivery,
and the mother should be advised to avoid pregnancy for at least 3 months.




9. A female child with rubella should be isolated from a:
A. 21 year old male cousin living in the same house
B. 18 year old sister who recently got married
C. 11 year old sister who had rubeola during childhood
D. 4 year old girl who lives next door
Answer: B. 18 year old sister who recently got married




3

, Rationale: Rubella is teratogenic. A female who is pregnant or may become pregnant
should be isolated from a child with rubella. The 18-year-old sister who recently got
married may become pregnant and is at risk.




10. What is the primary prevention of leprosy?
A. Nutrition
B. Vitamins
C. BCG vaccination
D. DPT vaccination
Answer: C. BCG vaccination
Rationale: BCG vaccination provides primary prevention against leprosy. It is given
at birth as part of the Expanded Program on Immunization.




11. A bacteria which causes diphtheria is also known as?
A. Amoeba
B. Cholera
C. Klebs-loeffler bacillus
Answer: C. Klebs-loeffler bacillus
Rationale: Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, also known as the
Klebs-Loeffler bacillus.




12. Nurse Ron performed mantoux skin test today (Monday) to a male adult
client. Which statement by the client indicates that he understood the
instruction well?
A. I will come back later
B. I will come back next month
C. I will come back on Friday
D. I will come back on Wednesday, same time, to read the result
Answer: D. I will come back on Wednesday, same time, to read the result
Rationale: The Mantoux skin test result is read 48-72 hours after administration. If
given on Monday, the result should be read on Wednesday at the same time.




13. A male client had undergone Mantoux skin test. Nurse Ronald notes an
8mm area of indurations at the site of the skin test. The nurse interprets the
result as:
A. Negative
B. Uncertain and needs to be repeated
4

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