Title: PNLE ALL IN PRACTICE EXAMS: 150 Nursing Prioritization, Delegation & Board Exam Questions with Verified Answers & Rationales 2025/2026 – Complete PNLE & NCLEX Study Guide (A+ Guaranteed)
Description:
PNLE ALL IN PRACTICE EXAMS – Nursing Prioritization, Delegation & Comprehensive Board Review Edition
This is the ultimate PNLE (Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination) and NCLEX practice exam reviewer for Nursing Prioritization, Delegation, and Comprehensive Nursing Concepts. Containing 150 board-style multiple-choice questions with complete answers, detailed rationales, and test-taking strategies, this document is designed to help nursing students and board exam takers master the most commonly tested concepts in nursing prioritization, delegation, and clinical decision-making.
Whether you are preparing for the PNLE, NCLEX-RN, NCLEX-PN, local board exams, or nursing school finals, this practice exam will help you identify weak areas, strengthen your clinical reasoning, and build the confidence needed to pass on your first attempt.
WHY THIS REVIEWER IS A MUST-HAVE:
150 High-Yield Questions – Modeled after actual PNLE and NCLEX board exam questions.
Complete Answer Keys – Every question includes the correct answer clearly marked.
In-Depth Rationales – Learn the "why" behind every answer. Each rationale explains why the correct option is right AND why the other options are incorrect.
Test-Taking Strategies – Learn how to eliminate distractors, identify keywords, and apply critical thinking.
Comprehensive Topic Coverage – Covers prioritization, delegation, communicable diseases, maternal and child health, psychiatric nursing, pharmacology, legal and ethical issues, and more.
Perfect for Self-Study & Group Review – Use as a standalone reviewer or supplement to your lecture notes.
Ideal for Filipino Nursing Students – Written with PNLE-style phrasing, terminology, and nursing interventions.
Instant Download – Word document format, ready to study immediately.
COMPLETE TOPIC BREAKDOWN (150 Questions):
UNIT 1: IMMUNIZATION & VACCINE ADMINISTRATION (Questions 1, 8–9, 21, 24, 65)
Rubella vaccination and pregnancy precautions
Live attenuated virus vaccines
Contraindications during pregnancy
BCG vaccine – live attenuated bacterial vaccine
OPV and measles vaccine storage
Tetanus toxoid administration – intramuscular route
Vaccine potency and cold chain management
EPI immunization schedule
TT2, TT3, TT4, TT5 protection rates
Measles and OPV storage temperature
UNIT 2: COMMUNICABLE DISEASE NURSING (Questions 3–7, 10–15, 22, 25)
Rabies – incubation period, hydrophobia, aerophobia
Dengue hemorrhagic fever – Rumpel-leede test, capillary fragility
Malaria – peripheral blood smear, diagnostic testing
Herpes zoster (Shingles) – varicella-zoster virus, chicken pox exposure
Rubella – teratogenic effects, isolation precautions
Leprosy – BCG vaccination as primary prevention
Diphtheria – Klebs-Loeffler bacillus, bacterial toxin
Tuberculosis – Mantoux skin test, induration reading, Isoniazid therapy
Syphilis – chancre, primary lesion
EPI – epidemiological situation basis
Communicable disease transmission and prevention
UNIT 3: MATERNAL & CHILD HEALTH NURSING (Questions 16–20, 50–64, 66–67, 71–73, 75–76, 79–83, 88)
Fast breathing in infants – respiratory rate assessment
Dehydration signs – IMCI guidelines
Dysentery – Cotrimoxazole first-line treatment
Home-made Oresol preparation – salt and sugar ratio
Gentian violet – umbilical infections
Amniotic fluid weight in third trimester
Umbilical cord – two arteries and one vein
Naegele's rule – estimated date of birth calculation
Iron-rich foods – sources and deficiencies
Ectopic pregnancy – immediate surgery
Endometritis – Semi-Fowler's position
Urinary frequency in pregnancy – ascending uterus pressure
Blood loss during first 24 hours post-delivery
Prolactin and oxytocin – milk production and ejection
Stages of labor – second stage, complete cervical dilation
Nitrazine paper test – rupture of membranes
Amniotomy – fetal heart tone monitoring
Postpartum hemorrhage – uterine atony
Fundal height – 2nd postpartum day assessment
Home delivery criteria – normal findings
ASIN Law – R.A. 8172
Sambong – herbal medicine for urolithiasis
Postpartum visits – 2-4 weeks after delivery
Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM) – 98% protection
IMCI case management process
Pneumonia follow-up – after 2 days
Finger-thumb opposition – 9 months
Primary teeth – age in months minus 6
Acetylcysteine – Tylenol poisoning antidote
Habit training – moderate intellectual disability
Polyhydramnios – congenital GI anomaly
Celiac disease – gluten-free diet (rice)
Oral medication administration – choices for children
Tooth brushing – 6 years old
Ribavirin (Virazole) – RSV treatment via oxygen tent
Breastfeeding – EO 51 Milk Code
Family planning methods – pills, tubal ligation, LAM, IUD
UNIT 4: NURSING PRIORITIZATION & DELEGATION (Questions 2, 43, 48–49, 98)
Mannitol – increased intracranial pressure, osmotic diuretic
Physical examination preparation – patient priority
Full-thickness burns – airway clearance priority
Local inflammatory response – redness and warmth
Delegation – tasks that cannot be delegated to non-nurse health workers
Changing IV infusions – nursing responsibility
Vital signs, transfer, NGT irrigation – delegable tasks
Priority setting in nursing care
ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization
Maslow's hierarchy of needs in nursing
UNIT 5: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING & PHYSICAL ASSESSMENT (Questions 39–46, 128, 130, 134–136, 140–142)
Objective data – overt, observable, measurable
Subjective data – covert, verbal reports
Breast palpation – supine position
Breast self-examination – 7 days after menstruation
Kardex – flip-over card at nursing station
Thoracentesis – side lying, unaffected side
Abdominal distension – percussion
Ototoxicity – 8th cranial nerve damage
Circulatory constriction – blanching, cyanosis
Abdominal pain assessment – symptomatic quadrant last
Oral temperature – 3 minutes
Osteoarthritis – age as most significant risk factor
Vertigo – inner ear problem
Weber's test – affected side by bone conduction
Myasthenia gravis – edrophonium (Tensilon) test
Guillain-Barré Syndrome – respiratory assessment
Intracranial pressure – earliest sign, respiratory goal
Atrial fibrillation – thrombus formation
Breast self-examination – post-hysterectomy
UNIT 6: PHARMACOLOGY & MEDICATION ADMINISTRATION (Questions 2, 14, 77, 103, 112–113, 128, 131)
Mannitol – osmotic diuretic, increased urinary output
Isoniazid (INH) – peripheral neuropathy, Vitamin B6
Acetylcysteine – Tylenol poisoning antidote
Diazepam (Valium) – cocaine withdrawal
Ataractics – antipsychotics
Antidepressants – mood elevators
Colchicine – acute gout attack
Ototoxicity – 8th cranial nerve
IV flow rate calculation – drops per minute
Drug classification and indications
UNIT 7: PSYCHIATRIC NURSING (Questions 47, 99, 101–123)
Hallucinogens – dilated pupils
Meditation and prayer – respect client's spiritual practices
Empathy – entering into another's feelings
Nurse-patient relationship – termination phase
Cocaine withdrawal – Diazepam
Cocaine – psychostimulant classification
Poverty – risk factor for mental illness
Crisis characteristics – self-limiting, unique
Freud's psychosexual stages – anal stage, temper tantrums
Ego development – infancy
Anorexia nervosa – primary gain, nursing diagnosis, improvement indicators
Antipsychotics – ataractics, psychic energizers
Antidepressants – mood elevators
Alzheimer's disease – simplify environment
Autism – diagnosed at 3 years, withdrawal
ECT – most common indication, depression
Gestalt therapy – here and now
Cognitive therapy – changing irrational thoughts
Bipolar I disorder – manic phase nutrition, finger foods
Depression – finger painting activity
Introjection – defense mechanism in severe depression
Self-mutilation – overcoming insecurity
Cystitis – coffee as bladder irritant
Renal calculi – strain urine, analgesics
Renal failure – low protein, low sodium, low potassium diet
Dialysis – cannot correct decreased hemoglobin
UNIT 8: MATERNAL & CHILD HEALTH – NEWBORN & INFANT CARE (Questions 16, 75–76, 81–83)
Fast breathing in 3-week-old infant
Finger-thumb opposition – 9 months
Primary teeth – age in months minus 6
Oral medication administration to children
Tooth brushing – 6 years old
Ribavirin – RSV treatment
Breastfeeding – Milk Code (EO 51)
UNIT 9: COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING (Questions 68, 74, 88, 105)
Community/public health bag – essential equipment
Sentrong Sigla Movement – certification program
Breastfeeding – EO 51 Milk Code
Poverty – risk factor for mental illness
Home visit bag technique
Community health nursing principles
UNIT 10: NURSING MANAGEMENT & LEADERSHIP (Questions 26–32, 36)
Budgeting – planning function
Schedule – timetable of work days and shifts
Motivation – internal force influencing behavior
Vision – "To be the leading hospital"
Standards – professionally desired norms
Negative reinforcement – reprimanding staff
Close-ended questions – survey method
Inductive reasoning – generalizations from observations
Risk-benefit ratio – research ethics
Element – individual/object in a population
Organizational chart – structure of organization
Delegation and assignment
Staffing and scheduling
Performance appraisal
UNIT 11: LEGAL & ETHICAL ISSUES IN NURSING (Questions 84–87, 89–97, 132, 136–137)
Board of Nursing (BON) – ethical standards
License revocation – re-issuance after 4 years
PRC identification card – information contained
Autonomy – self-governance, decision-making
Veracity – truthfulness
Fidelity – being on time, meeting deadlines
Prudence – sound judgment, raising side rails
Continuing education – formal vs. informal
BSN curriculum – nurse generalist, primary health nurse
Medical records disposal – Department of Health
Mentally ill patients – consent from parents/legal guardians
Trustworthiness – respecting client self-disclosure
Patient's chart – inadmissible in court
Plaintiff – one filing criminal case
DNR order – stay with client, do nothing
Force majeure – natural calamity excuse
Nursing informatics – ANA recognition, certification
Confidentiality and privacy
Informed consent
Patient rights and advocacy
UNIT 12: NURSING INFORMATICS (Questions 138–139)
ANA recognition of nursing informatics – 1994
First certification of nursing informatics –
Technology in nursing practice
Electronic health records
Data management and informatics
UNIT 13: MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING (Questions 124–131, 140–147)
Cystitis – coffee as bladder irritant
Renal calculi – priority nursing intervention
Renal failure – dietary management
Dialysis – limitations
Ototoxicity – 8th cranial nerve
Urinary tract infection – prevention and teaching
Circulatory constriction – cast assessment
Gout – Colchicine
Osteoarthritis – age as risk factor
Vertigo – inner ear
Weber's test – hearing assessment
Myasthenia gravis – Tensilon test
Guillain-Barré Syndrome – respiratory assessment
Intracranial pressure – earliest sign, respiratory goal
Atrial fibrillation – thrombus formation
Post-hysterectomy – breast self-examination
UNIT 14: NUTRITION & DIET THERAPY (Questions 53, 80, 120, 126)
Iron-rich foods – sources and deficiencies
Celiac disease – gluten-free diet
Bipolar I disorder – manic phase nutrition
Renal failure – low protein, low sodium, low potassium
Dietary modifications in disease states
Nutritional assessment and intervention
UNIT 15: EMERGENCY & CRITICAL CARE NURSING (Questions 2, 48, 54, 61, 77, 103, 130, 137, 143–147)
Mannitol – increased intracranial pressure
Full-thickness burns – airway priority
Ectopic pregnancy – immediate surgery
Amniotomy – fetal heart tone monitoring
Tylenol poisoning – Acetylcysteine
Cocaine withdrawal – Diazepam
Circulatory constriction – cast assessment
DNR order – nursing responsibilities
Myasthenia gravis – Tensilon test
Guillain-Barré Syndrome – respiratory assessment
Intracranial pressure – earliest sign, respiratory goal
Atrial fibrillation – thrombus formation
Emergency response and prioritization
UNIT 16: HEALTH EDUCATION & PATIENT TEACHING (Questions 12, 14, 67, 80, 81, 88, 129)
Mantoux skin test – follow-up instructions
Isoniazid therapy – patient teaching
Sambong – herbal medicine teaching
Celiac disease – dietary teaching
Oral medication administration – children
Breastfeeding – Milk Code
Urinary tract infection – prevention teaching
Patient education strategies
Health promotion and disease prevention
UNIT 17: RESEARCH & EVIDENCE-BASED PRACTICE (Questions 33–35)
Inductive reasoning – generalizations from observations
Risk-benefit ratio – research ethics
Element – individual/object in population
Research process and methodology
Evidence-based nursing practice
Data collection and analysis
UNIT 18: PROFESSIONAL NURSING PRACTICE (Questions 37–38, 84–87, 94)
First college of nursing in the Philippines – UST
Florence Nightingale – born in Italy
Board of Nursing – ethical standards
License revocation – re-issuance after 4 years
PRC identification card – information contained
BSN curriculum – nurse generalist, primary health nurse
Nursing history and milestones
Professional organizations – PNA, ANSAP, BON
WHO IS THIS FOR?
PNLE Board Exam Takers – Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination
NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Reviewers – US and international board exams
Nursing Students – Undergraduate nursing courses
Review Centers – Use as a supplemental practice test
Foreign Nurse Licensure Exams – Adaptable to various countries
Returning Nurses – Refresher and competency review
Nurse Educators – Question bank for classroom quizzes and exams
Clinical Instructors – Teaching prioritization and delegation
HOW TO USE THIS REVIEWER:
Take the exam – Answer all 150 questions without looking at the answers.
Check your answers – Use the answer key to score yourself.
Read the rationales – Understand why you got questions right or wrong.
Identify weak areas – Focus on topics where you scored low.
Review and repeat – Retake the exam after studying to measure improvement.
Simulate board conditions – Time yourself to build speed and accuracy.
DOCUMENT DETAILS:
Format: Word Document (DOCX)
Pages: 45
Questions: 150 Multiple-Choice
Answers: Complete with rationales
Language: English
Difficulty: PNLE/NCLEX Board Level
File Type: Digital Download
Content preview
150 Item PNLE Practice Test Questions
1. A woman in a child bearing age receives a rubella vaccination. Nurse Joy
would give her which of the following instructions?
A. Refrain from eating eggs or egg products for 24 hours
B. Avoid having sexual intercourse
C. Don't get pregnant at least 3 months
D. Avoid exposure to sun
Answer: C. Don't get pregnant at least 3 months
Rationale: Rubella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine. It is contraindicated
during pregnancy because of the theoretical risk of teratogenicity. Women should be
advised to avoid pregnancy for at least 3 months after vaccination.
2. Jonas who is diagnosed with encephalitis is under the treatment of
Mannitol. Which of the following patient outcomes indicate to Nurse Ronald
that the treatment of Mannitol has been effective for a patient that has
increased intracranial pressure?
A. Increased urinary output
B. Decreased RR
C. Slowed papillary response
D. Decreased level of consciousness
Answer: A. Increased urinary output
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce increased intracranial
pressure. Effective treatment results in increased urinary output, which indicates that
the medication is drawing fluid out of the brain tissue and excreting it through the
kidneys.
3. Mary asked Nurse Maureen about the incubation period of rabies. Which
statement by the Nurse Maureen is appropriate?
A. Incubation period is 6 months
B. Incubation period is 1 week
C. Incubation period is 1 month
D. Incubation period varies depending on the site of the bite
Answer: D. Incubation period varies depending on the site of the bite
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,Rationale: The incubation period of rabies varies depending on the site of the bite.
Bites closer to the central nervous system (e.g., face, neck) have shorter incubation
periods, while bites on the extremities have longer incubation periods.
4. Which of the following should Nurse Cherry do first in taking care of a
male client with rabies?
A. Encourage the patient to take a bath
B. Cover IV bottle with brown paper bag
C. Place the patient near the comfort room
D. Place the patient near the door
Answer: B. Cover IV bottle with brown paper bag
Rationale: Clients with rabies have hydrophobia and aerophobia. They are extremely
sensitive to stimuli such as light, sound, and water. Covering the IV bottle with a
brown paper bag minimizes visual stimuli that could trigger spasms.
5. Which of the following is the screening test for dengue hemorrhagic
fever?
A. Complete blood count
B. ELISA
C. Rumpel-leede test
D. Sedimentation rate
Answer: C. Rumpel-leede test
Rationale: The Rumpel-leede test (tourniquet test) is a screening test for dengue
hemorrhagic fever. It assesses capillary fragility, which is increased in DHF.
6. Mr. Dela Rosa is suspected to have malaria after a business trip in
Palawan. The most important diagnostic test in malaria is:
A. WBC count
B. Urinalysis
C. ELISA
D. Peripheral blood smear
Answer: D. Peripheral blood smear
Rationale: The peripheral blood smear is the most important diagnostic test for
malaria. It allows direct visualization of the malaria parasite in the red blood cells.
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,7. The Nurse supervisor is planning for patient's assignment for the AM
shift. The nurse supervisor avoids assigning which of the following staff
members to a client with herpes zoster?
A. Nurse who never had chicken pox
B. Nurse who never had roseola
C. Nurse who never had german measles
D. Nurse who never had mumps
Answer: A. Nurse who never had chicken pox
Rationale: Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, the same
virus that causes chicken pox. A nurse who has never had chicken pox is susceptible
to infection and should not be assigned to a client with herpes zoster.
8. Clarissa is 7 weeks pregnant. Further examination revealed that she is
susceptible to rubella. When would be the most appropriate for her to
receive rubella immunization?
A. At once
B. During 2nd trimester
C. During 3rd trimester
D. After the delivery of the baby
Answer: D. After the delivery of the baby
Rationale: Rubella immunization is contraindicated during pregnancy because it is a
live attenuated vaccine. The most appropriate time to administer it is after delivery,
and the mother should be advised to avoid pregnancy for at least 3 months.
9. A female child with rubella should be isolated from a:
A. 21 year old male cousin living in the same house
B. 18 year old sister who recently got married
C. 11 year old sister who had rubeola during childhood
D. 4 year old girl who lives next door
Answer: B. 18 year old sister who recently got married
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, Rationale: Rubella is teratogenic. A female who is pregnant or may become pregnant
should be isolated from a child with rubella. The 18-year-old sister who recently got
married may become pregnant and is at risk.
10. What is the primary prevention of leprosy?
A. Nutrition
B. Vitamins
C. BCG vaccination
D. DPT vaccination
Answer: C. BCG vaccination
Rationale: BCG vaccination provides primary prevention against leprosy. It is given
at birth as part of the Expanded Program on Immunization.
11. A bacteria which causes diphtheria is also known as?
A. Amoeba
B. Cholera
C. Klebs-loeffler bacillus
Answer: C. Klebs-loeffler bacillus
Rationale: Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, also known as the
Klebs-Loeffler bacillus.
12. Nurse Ron performed mantoux skin test today (Monday) to a male adult
client. Which statement by the client indicates that he understood the
instruction well?
A. I will come back later
B. I will come back next month
C. I will come back on Friday
D. I will come back on Wednesday, same time, to read the result
Answer: D. I will come back on Wednesday, same time, to read the result
Rationale: The Mantoux skin test result is read 48-72 hours after administration. If
given on Monday, the result should be read on Wednesday at the same time.
13. A male client had undergone Mantoux skin test. Nurse Ronald notes an
8mm area of indurations at the site of the skin test. The nurse interprets the
result as:
A. Negative
B. Uncertain and needs to be repeated
4