Prophecy Assessments - Core Mandatory Part I, II & III All Correct Answers | 2026/2027 Updated
Prophecy Assessments - Core Mandatory
Part I, Part II & Part III with All Correct Answers | 2026/2027 Updated
This exam is aligned with the Prophecy Assessments Core Mandatory examination structure and reflects
2026/2027 current Joint Commission standards, CMS regulations, OSHA requirements, and HIPAA provisions. It
contains exactly 150 multiple-choice questions distributed across three parts and twelve sections. PART I (Q1-50)
covers Core Mandatory Fundamentals: Healthcare Safety and Infection Control, Patient
Rights/Ethics/Confidentiality, Emergency Preparedness, and Workplace Safety. PART II (Q51-100) covers
Clinical Practice Essentials: Medication Safety and Administration, Patient Assessment and Monitoring,
Documentation and Communication, and Restraint and Seclusion. PART III (Q101-150) covers Specialty and
Regulatory Compliance: Regulatory Compliance and Accreditation, Quality Improvement and Patient Safety,
Bloodborne Pathogens and Occupational Exposure, and Age-Specific and Cultural Competence. Cognitive levels:
approximately 40% recall (policies, procedures, definitions), 45% application (scenario-based compliance
decisions), and 15% analysis (complex regulatory interpretation). Approximately 70% of questions are
scenario-based application and 30% are direct recall of policies, procedures, and regulations. Each question
provides four options (A-D) with one correct answer, marked [CORRECT] in green, and a detailed rationale with
specific regulatory citations (OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030, 29 CFR 1910.1200; HIPAA 45 CFR 164; CMS
Conditions of Participation; Joint Commission NPSGs), policy requirements, and safety standards. Priority
question formats include 'Which action should the healthcare worker take FIRST?', 'Which action is a violation
of...', and 'Which complication is the patient at GREATEST risk for?' Common compliance errors (incorrect
isolation precautions, HIPAA violations, improper medication administration, restraint misuse, failure to report
abuse, incorrect emergency response) appear as distractors requiring accurate regulatory knowledge and practical
compliance decision-making at the pre-licensure healthcare worker level.
PART I: Core Mandatory Fundamentals
Healthcare Safety, Patient Rights, Emergency Preparedness, and Workplace Safety
Section 1: Healthcare Safety and Infection Control
Standard Precautions, Isolation, and Hand Hygiene
Aligned with Joint Commission, CMS, OSHA, and HIPAA Standards Page 1
,Prophecy Assessments - Core Mandatory Part I, II & III All Correct Answers | 2026/2027 Updated
Q1. A healthcare worker is about to perform a clean dressing change on a patient's surgical wound. The
patient has no known contagious infection. Which type of precautions should the healthcare worker use?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Contact precautions with gown and gloves
C. Standard precautions with appropriate PPE based on anticipated exposure [CORRECT]
D. Droplet precautions with surgical mask
Correct Answer: C
Rationale
Standard precautions are used for ALL patient care regardless of diagnosis, with PPE selected based on anticipated exposure
to blood, body fluids, secretions, and contaminated items. A clean dressing change requires gloves and may require a gown
if contamination is anticipated. Transmission-based precautions (Contact, Droplet, Airborne - Options A, B, D) are reserved
for patients with known or suspected contagious infections.
Q2. A patient is on contact precautions for Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection. Which PPE should
the healthcare worker don before entering the room?
A. Surgical mask only
B. Gown and gloves, with soap-and-water hand hygiene (alcohol-based hand rub is ineffective against C. diff
spores) [CORRECT]
C. N95 respirator and eye protection
D. Gloves only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
C. diff requires Contact Precautions with gown and gloves; crucially, alcohol-based hand rubs do NOT kill C. diff spores, so
soap-and-water hand washing is required. Surgical mask (Option A) is not needed unless splash risk exists. N95 (Option C) is
for airborne pathogens. Gloves alone (Option D) is insufficient - gown is required.
Q3. A patient with known tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which isolation
precautions and PPE are required?
A. Contact precautions with gown and gloves
B. Droplet precautions with surgical mask
C. Airborne precautions with N95 respirator or PAPR in a negative-pressure room [CORRECT]
D. Standard precautions with surgical mask
Correct Answer: C
Rationale
TB is transmitted via airborne particles (small droplet nuclei that remain suspended and travel on air currents). The patient
requires airborne isolation in a negative-pressure room, and healthcare workers must wear an N95 respirator or PAPR.
Contact (Option A) and Droplet (Option B) are insufficient. Standard precautions with surgical mask (Option D) do not
protect against airborne TB.
Aligned with Joint Commission, CMS, OSHA, and HIPAA Standards Page 2
,Prophecy Assessments - Core Mandatory Part I, II & III All Correct Answers | 2026/2027 Updated
Q4. Which of the following is one of the WHO Five Moments for Hand Hygiene?
A. After removing gloves only
B. Before touching the patient, before clean/aseptic procedures, after body fluid exposure, after touching the
patient, and after touching patient surroundings [CORRECT]
C. Before leaving the unit only
D. Once per shift at the start of the shift
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
The WHO Five Moments for Hand Hygiene are: (1) before touching a patient, (2) before clean/aseptic procedures, (3) after
body fluid exposure/risk, (4) after touching a patient, and (5) after touching patient surroundings. The other options
describe inadequate or single moments that fail to cover the full WHO framework.
Q5. A healthcare worker enters a patient's room to take vital signs. The patient has methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a wound. What PPE is required?
A. N95 respirator
B. Surgical mask and eye protection
C. Gown and gloves (contact precautions) [CORRECT]
D. No PPE is required
Correct Answer: C
Rationale
MRSA is transmitted by direct or indirect contact, requiring contact precautions with gown and gloves. N95 (Option A) is for
airborne pathogens. Surgical mask and eye protection (Option B) are for droplet/splash protection. Option D is incorrect
because contact precautions are required.
Q6. The correct order for donning personal protective equipment (PPE) is:
A. Mask, gown, gloves, eye protection
B. Gown, mask or respirator, goggles or face shield, gloves [CORRECT]
C. Gloves, gown, mask, eye protection
D. Eye protection, gloves, mask, gown
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
The CDC-recommended donning sequence is: gown first, then mask or respirator, then goggles or face shield, then gloves
(gloves are pulled over the gown cuffs). The other sequences do not follow CDC guidance and risk contamination during
donning.
Aligned with Joint Commission, CMS, OSHA, and HIPAA Standards Page 3
, Prophecy Assessments - Core Mandatory Part I, II & III All Correct Answers | 2026/2027 Updated
Q7. The correct order for removing (doffing) personal protective equipment (PPE) is:
A. Gown, gloves, mask, eye protection
B. Mask, gloves, gown, eye protection
C. Gloves, eye protection, gown, mask or respirator (mask removed outside the room if possible)
D. Gloves, gown, eye protection, mask or respirator (mask removed outside the room for airborne
precautions) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale
The CDC doffing sequence removes the most contaminated items first: gloves (most contaminated), then gown, then eye
protection, then mask or respirator (the mask is removed last, often outside the room for airborne precautions so the
worker remains protected while leaving). Hand hygiene is performed immediately after removing all PPE. The other options
remove the mask too early or in incorrect order.
Q8. A patient with influenza requires which type of transmission-based precautions?
A. Airborne precautions with N95 respirator
B. Droplet precautions with surgical mask within 3-6 feet of the patient [CORRECT]
C. Contact precautions only
D. No special precautions beyond standard
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
Influenza is transmitted via large respiratory droplets (typically within 3-6 feet), requiring droplet precautions with a surgical
mask. N95 (Option A) is for airborne pathogens. Contact precautions only (Option C) is insufficient. Option D is incorrect
because droplet precautions are required for influenza.
Q9. Which finding indicates that a healthcare worker has performed proper hand hygiene using an
alcohol-based hand rub?
A. Hands are wiped dry with a paper towel after applying the product
B. The product is applied to wet hands immediately after washing with soap and water
C. The product is applied to dry hands in the amount specified by the manufacturer, and hands are rubbed
together until dry, covering all surfaces [CORRECT]
D. The product is rinsed off after 30 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale
Alcohol-based hand rub should be applied to dry hands in the manufacturer-specified amount and rubbed over all hand
surfaces until dry. Wiping with a paper towel (Option A) removes the active ingredient before it works. Applying to wet
hands (Option B) dilutes the alcohol below effective concentration. Rinsing off (Option D) defeats the purpose.
Aligned with Joint Commission, CMS, OSHA, and HIPAA Standards Page 4
Prophecy Assessments - Core Mandatory
Part I, Part II & Part III with All Correct Answers | 2026/2027 Updated
This exam is aligned with the Prophecy Assessments Core Mandatory examination structure and reflects
2026/2027 current Joint Commission standards, CMS regulations, OSHA requirements, and HIPAA provisions. It
contains exactly 150 multiple-choice questions distributed across three parts and twelve sections. PART I (Q1-50)
covers Core Mandatory Fundamentals: Healthcare Safety and Infection Control, Patient
Rights/Ethics/Confidentiality, Emergency Preparedness, and Workplace Safety. PART II (Q51-100) covers
Clinical Practice Essentials: Medication Safety and Administration, Patient Assessment and Monitoring,
Documentation and Communication, and Restraint and Seclusion. PART III (Q101-150) covers Specialty and
Regulatory Compliance: Regulatory Compliance and Accreditation, Quality Improvement and Patient Safety,
Bloodborne Pathogens and Occupational Exposure, and Age-Specific and Cultural Competence. Cognitive levels:
approximately 40% recall (policies, procedures, definitions), 45% application (scenario-based compliance
decisions), and 15% analysis (complex regulatory interpretation). Approximately 70% of questions are
scenario-based application and 30% are direct recall of policies, procedures, and regulations. Each question
provides four options (A-D) with one correct answer, marked [CORRECT] in green, and a detailed rationale with
specific regulatory citations (OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030, 29 CFR 1910.1200; HIPAA 45 CFR 164; CMS
Conditions of Participation; Joint Commission NPSGs), policy requirements, and safety standards. Priority
question formats include 'Which action should the healthcare worker take FIRST?', 'Which action is a violation
of...', and 'Which complication is the patient at GREATEST risk for?' Common compliance errors (incorrect
isolation precautions, HIPAA violations, improper medication administration, restraint misuse, failure to report
abuse, incorrect emergency response) appear as distractors requiring accurate regulatory knowledge and practical
compliance decision-making at the pre-licensure healthcare worker level.
PART I: Core Mandatory Fundamentals
Healthcare Safety, Patient Rights, Emergency Preparedness, and Workplace Safety
Section 1: Healthcare Safety and Infection Control
Standard Precautions, Isolation, and Hand Hygiene
Aligned with Joint Commission, CMS, OSHA, and HIPAA Standards Page 1
,Prophecy Assessments - Core Mandatory Part I, II & III All Correct Answers | 2026/2027 Updated
Q1. A healthcare worker is about to perform a clean dressing change on a patient's surgical wound. The
patient has no known contagious infection. Which type of precautions should the healthcare worker use?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Contact precautions with gown and gloves
C. Standard precautions with appropriate PPE based on anticipated exposure [CORRECT]
D. Droplet precautions with surgical mask
Correct Answer: C
Rationale
Standard precautions are used for ALL patient care regardless of diagnosis, with PPE selected based on anticipated exposure
to blood, body fluids, secretions, and contaminated items. A clean dressing change requires gloves and may require a gown
if contamination is anticipated. Transmission-based precautions (Contact, Droplet, Airborne - Options A, B, D) are reserved
for patients with known or suspected contagious infections.
Q2. A patient is on contact precautions for Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection. Which PPE should
the healthcare worker don before entering the room?
A. Surgical mask only
B. Gown and gloves, with soap-and-water hand hygiene (alcohol-based hand rub is ineffective against C. diff
spores) [CORRECT]
C. N95 respirator and eye protection
D. Gloves only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
C. diff requires Contact Precautions with gown and gloves; crucially, alcohol-based hand rubs do NOT kill C. diff spores, so
soap-and-water hand washing is required. Surgical mask (Option A) is not needed unless splash risk exists. N95 (Option C) is
for airborne pathogens. Gloves alone (Option D) is insufficient - gown is required.
Q3. A patient with known tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which isolation
precautions and PPE are required?
A. Contact precautions with gown and gloves
B. Droplet precautions with surgical mask
C. Airborne precautions with N95 respirator or PAPR in a negative-pressure room [CORRECT]
D. Standard precautions with surgical mask
Correct Answer: C
Rationale
TB is transmitted via airborne particles (small droplet nuclei that remain suspended and travel on air currents). The patient
requires airborne isolation in a negative-pressure room, and healthcare workers must wear an N95 respirator or PAPR.
Contact (Option A) and Droplet (Option B) are insufficient. Standard precautions with surgical mask (Option D) do not
protect against airborne TB.
Aligned with Joint Commission, CMS, OSHA, and HIPAA Standards Page 2
,Prophecy Assessments - Core Mandatory Part I, II & III All Correct Answers | 2026/2027 Updated
Q4. Which of the following is one of the WHO Five Moments for Hand Hygiene?
A. After removing gloves only
B. Before touching the patient, before clean/aseptic procedures, after body fluid exposure, after touching the
patient, and after touching patient surroundings [CORRECT]
C. Before leaving the unit only
D. Once per shift at the start of the shift
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
The WHO Five Moments for Hand Hygiene are: (1) before touching a patient, (2) before clean/aseptic procedures, (3) after
body fluid exposure/risk, (4) after touching a patient, and (5) after touching patient surroundings. The other options
describe inadequate or single moments that fail to cover the full WHO framework.
Q5. A healthcare worker enters a patient's room to take vital signs. The patient has methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a wound. What PPE is required?
A. N95 respirator
B. Surgical mask and eye protection
C. Gown and gloves (contact precautions) [CORRECT]
D. No PPE is required
Correct Answer: C
Rationale
MRSA is transmitted by direct or indirect contact, requiring contact precautions with gown and gloves. N95 (Option A) is for
airborne pathogens. Surgical mask and eye protection (Option B) are for droplet/splash protection. Option D is incorrect
because contact precautions are required.
Q6. The correct order for donning personal protective equipment (PPE) is:
A. Mask, gown, gloves, eye protection
B. Gown, mask or respirator, goggles or face shield, gloves [CORRECT]
C. Gloves, gown, mask, eye protection
D. Eye protection, gloves, mask, gown
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
The CDC-recommended donning sequence is: gown first, then mask or respirator, then goggles or face shield, then gloves
(gloves are pulled over the gown cuffs). The other sequences do not follow CDC guidance and risk contamination during
donning.
Aligned with Joint Commission, CMS, OSHA, and HIPAA Standards Page 3
, Prophecy Assessments - Core Mandatory Part I, II & III All Correct Answers | 2026/2027 Updated
Q7. The correct order for removing (doffing) personal protective equipment (PPE) is:
A. Gown, gloves, mask, eye protection
B. Mask, gloves, gown, eye protection
C. Gloves, eye protection, gown, mask or respirator (mask removed outside the room if possible)
D. Gloves, gown, eye protection, mask or respirator (mask removed outside the room for airborne
precautions) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale
The CDC doffing sequence removes the most contaminated items first: gloves (most contaminated), then gown, then eye
protection, then mask or respirator (the mask is removed last, often outside the room for airborne precautions so the
worker remains protected while leaving). Hand hygiene is performed immediately after removing all PPE. The other options
remove the mask too early or in incorrect order.
Q8. A patient with influenza requires which type of transmission-based precautions?
A. Airborne precautions with N95 respirator
B. Droplet precautions with surgical mask within 3-6 feet of the patient [CORRECT]
C. Contact precautions only
D. No special precautions beyond standard
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
Influenza is transmitted via large respiratory droplets (typically within 3-6 feet), requiring droplet precautions with a surgical
mask. N95 (Option A) is for airborne pathogens. Contact precautions only (Option C) is insufficient. Option D is incorrect
because droplet precautions are required for influenza.
Q9. Which finding indicates that a healthcare worker has performed proper hand hygiene using an
alcohol-based hand rub?
A. Hands are wiped dry with a paper towel after applying the product
B. The product is applied to wet hands immediately after washing with soap and water
C. The product is applied to dry hands in the amount specified by the manufacturer, and hands are rubbed
together until dry, covering all surfaces [CORRECT]
D. The product is rinsed off after 30 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale
Alcohol-based hand rub should be applied to dry hands in the manufacturer-specified amount and rubbed over all hand
surfaces until dry. Wiping with a paper towel (Option A) removes the active ingredient before it works. Applying to wet
hands (Option B) dilutes the alcohol below effective concentration. Rinsing off (Option D) defeats the purpose.
Aligned with Joint Commission, CMS, OSHA, and HIPAA Standards Page 4
