NR 547 Final EXAM 2026-2027 COMPLETE QUESTION
AND VERIFIED ANSWER 100% ACCURATE FALL-
SPRING
1. Question: What is the primary hallmark distinguishing delirium from dementia?
o Answer: Delirium presents with fluctuating consciousness and inattention. Dementia
maintains clear alertness until late stages.
2. Question: Which initial lab screening rules out reversible causes of neurocognitive
decline?
o Answer: Cobalamin (Vitamin B12) and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels.
3. Question: Which diagnostic criteria defines Major Neurocognitive Disorder?
o Answer: Significant cognitive decline interfering with independence in everyday
activities.
4. Question: Which screening tool evaluates global cognitive impairment in a brief office
visit?
o Answer: The Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA).
,5. Question: What medical intervention is preferred for Alzheimer's with moderate
cognitive impairment?
o Answer: Memantine (NMDA receptor antagonist).
6. Question: Which non-pharmacological strategy slows functional decline in mild
neurocognitive disorders?
o Answer: A regular, structured exercise program.
7. Question: What triad defines Wernicke's Encephalopathy?
o Answer: Ataxia, ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus, and acute confusion.
8. Question: What underlying pathology causes Wernicke's Encephalopathy?
o Answer: Severe Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency from chronic alcohol use.
9. Question: How do you differentiate pseudo-dementia (depression) from true dementia?
o Answer: Pseudo-dementia patients frequently answer "I don't know" and notice their
memory deficits.
10. Question: What characterizes Lewy Body Dementia?
o Answer: Visual hallucinations, REM sleep behavior disorder, and spontaneous
parkinsonism.
11. Question: What diagnostic scan detects beta-amyloid neuritic plaques in Alzheimer's?
o Answer: An Amyloid PET scan.
12. Question: What defines Vascular Dementia?
o Answer: A stepwise decline in cognition following documented cerebrovascular events.
13. Question: How is Frontotemporal Dementia characterized?
o Answer: Early changes in personality, behavior, and language, with preserved spatial
memory.
14. Question: How do you assess a patient's recent memory during an evaluation?
o Answer: Ask them to recall their previous night's dinner.
15. Question: What tool monitors functional decline in advanced Alzheimer's disease?
o Answer: The Functional Assessment Staging Tool (FAST).
🎭 Section 2: Mood Disorders & Differential Diagnoses
,16. Question: What timeline is required to diagnose Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?
o Answer: Symptoms must be present for at least 2 consecutive weeks.
17. Question: Which two core symptoms are mandatory for an MDD diagnosis?
o Answer: Depressed mood or anhedonia (loss of interest/pleasure).
18. Question: What screening tool differentiates Unipolar Depression from Bipolar
Disorder?
o Answer: The Mood Disorder Questionnaire (MDQ).
19. Question: What score on a PHQ-9 indicates the need to consider initiating medication?
o Answer: A PHQ-9 score \(\ge \) 15 typically warrants therapy or pharmacotherapy.
20. Question: What defines Bipolar I Disorder?
o Answer: At least one manic episode lasting at least 7 days.
21. Question: Is a major depressive episode required to diagnose Bipolar I?
o Answer: No, only a manic episode is mandatory.
22. Question: What defines Bipolar II Disorder?
o Answer: At least one hypomanic episode AND one major depressive episode.
23. Question: How long must hypomanic symptoms last for Bipolar II?
o Answer: At least 4 consecutive days.
24. Question: What clinical feature distinguishes mania from hypomania?
o Answer: Mania causes severe functional impairment or requires hospitalization.
25. Question: What is Cyclothymia?
o Answer: Chronic mood disturbances with fluctuating hypomanic and depressive
symptoms for 2+ years.
26. Question: What life-threatening skin reaction is associated with Lamotrigine?
o Answer: Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS), presenting as blistering/mouth sores.
27. Question: What laboratory parameter requires constant monitoring during Lithium
therapy?
o Answer: Serum lithium levels, renal function (BUN/creatinine), and thyroid levels.
28. Question: What features characterize the "Anxious Distress" specifier in MDD?
o Answer: Feeling unusually restless, keyed up, or excessively worried.
29. Question: Which demographic experiences a higher rate of rapid-cycling bipolar
disorder?
, o Answer: Females exhibit higher rapid-cycling rates.
30. Question: What does a score of 20+ on the PHQ-9 signal?
o Answer: Severe depression requiring urgent safety and clinical intervention.
👥 Section 3: Personality Disorders (Clusters A, B, & C)
31. Question: What core trait defines Cluster A personality disorders?
o Answer: Odd, eccentric, or paranoid thinking patterns.
32. Question: Which disorder features social detachment and complete lack of interest in
relationships?
o Answer: Schizoid Personality Disorder.
33. Question: What differentiates Schizotypal from Schizoid personality disorder?
o Answer: Schizotypal includes cognitive distortions, magical thinking, and eccentricities.
34. Question: What childhood diagnosis is a strong predictor of Antisocial Personality
Disorder?
o Answer: A diagnosis of Conduct Disorder by age 15.
35. Question: What core features define Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)?
o Answer: Affective instability, fear of abandonment, chronic emptiness, and self-harm.
36. Question: Which personality disorder features attention-seeking behavior and shallow,
shifting emotions?
o Answer: Histrionic Personality Disorder.
37. Question: What core trait defines Narcissistic Personality Disorder?
o Answer: Grandiosity, lack of empathy, and an intense need for admiration.
38. Question: What drives social isolation in Avoidant Personality Disorder?
o Answer: Severe fear of negative evaluation, rejection, and inadequacy.
39. Question: What characterizes Dependent Personality Disorder?
o Answer: A pervasive, excessive need to be taken care of, leading to submissive
behavior.
AND VERIFIED ANSWER 100% ACCURATE FALL-
SPRING
1. Question: What is the primary hallmark distinguishing delirium from dementia?
o Answer: Delirium presents with fluctuating consciousness and inattention. Dementia
maintains clear alertness until late stages.
2. Question: Which initial lab screening rules out reversible causes of neurocognitive
decline?
o Answer: Cobalamin (Vitamin B12) and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels.
3. Question: Which diagnostic criteria defines Major Neurocognitive Disorder?
o Answer: Significant cognitive decline interfering with independence in everyday
activities.
4. Question: Which screening tool evaluates global cognitive impairment in a brief office
visit?
o Answer: The Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA).
,5. Question: What medical intervention is preferred for Alzheimer's with moderate
cognitive impairment?
o Answer: Memantine (NMDA receptor antagonist).
6. Question: Which non-pharmacological strategy slows functional decline in mild
neurocognitive disorders?
o Answer: A regular, structured exercise program.
7. Question: What triad defines Wernicke's Encephalopathy?
o Answer: Ataxia, ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus, and acute confusion.
8. Question: What underlying pathology causes Wernicke's Encephalopathy?
o Answer: Severe Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency from chronic alcohol use.
9. Question: How do you differentiate pseudo-dementia (depression) from true dementia?
o Answer: Pseudo-dementia patients frequently answer "I don't know" and notice their
memory deficits.
10. Question: What characterizes Lewy Body Dementia?
o Answer: Visual hallucinations, REM sleep behavior disorder, and spontaneous
parkinsonism.
11. Question: What diagnostic scan detects beta-amyloid neuritic plaques in Alzheimer's?
o Answer: An Amyloid PET scan.
12. Question: What defines Vascular Dementia?
o Answer: A stepwise decline in cognition following documented cerebrovascular events.
13. Question: How is Frontotemporal Dementia characterized?
o Answer: Early changes in personality, behavior, and language, with preserved spatial
memory.
14. Question: How do you assess a patient's recent memory during an evaluation?
o Answer: Ask them to recall their previous night's dinner.
15. Question: What tool monitors functional decline in advanced Alzheimer's disease?
o Answer: The Functional Assessment Staging Tool (FAST).
🎭 Section 2: Mood Disorders & Differential Diagnoses
,16. Question: What timeline is required to diagnose Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?
o Answer: Symptoms must be present for at least 2 consecutive weeks.
17. Question: Which two core symptoms are mandatory for an MDD diagnosis?
o Answer: Depressed mood or anhedonia (loss of interest/pleasure).
18. Question: What screening tool differentiates Unipolar Depression from Bipolar
Disorder?
o Answer: The Mood Disorder Questionnaire (MDQ).
19. Question: What score on a PHQ-9 indicates the need to consider initiating medication?
o Answer: A PHQ-9 score \(\ge \) 15 typically warrants therapy or pharmacotherapy.
20. Question: What defines Bipolar I Disorder?
o Answer: At least one manic episode lasting at least 7 days.
21. Question: Is a major depressive episode required to diagnose Bipolar I?
o Answer: No, only a manic episode is mandatory.
22. Question: What defines Bipolar II Disorder?
o Answer: At least one hypomanic episode AND one major depressive episode.
23. Question: How long must hypomanic symptoms last for Bipolar II?
o Answer: At least 4 consecutive days.
24. Question: What clinical feature distinguishes mania from hypomania?
o Answer: Mania causes severe functional impairment or requires hospitalization.
25. Question: What is Cyclothymia?
o Answer: Chronic mood disturbances with fluctuating hypomanic and depressive
symptoms for 2+ years.
26. Question: What life-threatening skin reaction is associated with Lamotrigine?
o Answer: Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS), presenting as blistering/mouth sores.
27. Question: What laboratory parameter requires constant monitoring during Lithium
therapy?
o Answer: Serum lithium levels, renal function (BUN/creatinine), and thyroid levels.
28. Question: What features characterize the "Anxious Distress" specifier in MDD?
o Answer: Feeling unusually restless, keyed up, or excessively worried.
29. Question: Which demographic experiences a higher rate of rapid-cycling bipolar
disorder?
, o Answer: Females exhibit higher rapid-cycling rates.
30. Question: What does a score of 20+ on the PHQ-9 signal?
o Answer: Severe depression requiring urgent safety and clinical intervention.
👥 Section 3: Personality Disorders (Clusters A, B, & C)
31. Question: What core trait defines Cluster A personality disorders?
o Answer: Odd, eccentric, or paranoid thinking patterns.
32. Question: Which disorder features social detachment and complete lack of interest in
relationships?
o Answer: Schizoid Personality Disorder.
33. Question: What differentiates Schizotypal from Schizoid personality disorder?
o Answer: Schizotypal includes cognitive distortions, magical thinking, and eccentricities.
34. Question: What childhood diagnosis is a strong predictor of Antisocial Personality
Disorder?
o Answer: A diagnosis of Conduct Disorder by age 15.
35. Question: What core features define Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)?
o Answer: Affective instability, fear of abandonment, chronic emptiness, and self-harm.
36. Question: Which personality disorder features attention-seeking behavior and shallow,
shifting emotions?
o Answer: Histrionic Personality Disorder.
37. Question: What core trait defines Narcissistic Personality Disorder?
o Answer: Grandiosity, lack of empathy, and an intense need for admiration.
38. Question: What drives social isolation in Avoidant Personality Disorder?
o Answer: Severe fear of negative evaluation, rejection, and inadequacy.
39. Question: What characterizes Dependent Personality Disorder?
o Answer: A pervasive, excessive need to be taken care of, leading to submissive
behavior.
