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MATERNAL-NEWBORN NURSING EXAM COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS
LATEST EDITION 2026 – 2027 VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
Maternal-Newborn Nursing – Comprehensive Questions with Detailed Rationales
SUMMARIZED POINT EXAM COVERAGE
1. Antepartum Care and Assessment (30 questions): Prenatal assessment,
gestational dating, prenatal nutrition, danger signs, fetal development, and routine
prenatal care including laboratory testing and screenings.
2. Intrapartum Care and Fetal Monitoring (30 questions): Labor stages, fetal heart
rate monitoring, contraction patterns, pain management, positions for labor, and
nursing interventions during delivery.
3. Postpartum Assessment and Care (30 questions): Postpartum physical
assessment (BUBBLE-HE), uterine involution, lochia, perineal care, breastfeeding
support, and postpartum complications including hemorrhage and infection.
4. Newborn Assessment and Care (30 questions): APGAR scoring, newborn physical
examination, gestational age assessment, newborn reflexes, thermoregulation, and
routine newborn care including vitamin K and eye prophylaxis.
5. High-Risk Pregnancy Complications (30 questions): Gestational diabetes,
preeclampsia/eclampsia, placenta previa, placental abruption, preterm labor, and
preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM).
6. Labor and Delivery Complications (30 questions): Shoulder dystocia, prolapsed
cord, fetal distress, operative deliveries (cesarean, forceps, vacuum), and obstetric
emergencies including uterine rupture and amniotic fluid embolism.
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7. Postpartum Complications (30 questions): Postpartum hemorrhage, endometritis,
mastitis, postpartum depression, and thromboembolic disorders.
8. Newborn Complications (30 questions): Respiratory distress syndrome,
hyperbilirubinemia, hypoglycemia, sepsis, congenital anomalies, and neonatal
abstinence syndrome.
9. Reproductive Health and Family Planning (30 questions): Contraception methods,
infertility, sexually transmitted infections, and menopause management.
10. Medications in Maternal-Newborn Nursing (30 questions): Oxytocin, magnesium
sulfate, terbutaline, RhoGAM, vitamin K, and other medications used in obstetric and
neonatal care.
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE AND ASSESSMENT (Questions 1-30)
1. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client whose last
menstrual period (LMP) began on March 10. Using Naegele's rule, what is the
estimated date of delivery?
A. December 10
B. December 17
C. December 24
D. December 3
Correct Answer: B. December 17
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates the EDD by subtracting 3 months from the first day
of the LMP and adding 7 days, then adding 1 year. March 10 minus 3 months equals
December 10; adding 7 days gives December 17. This is the standard method for
estimating the date of delivery based on a regular 28-day menstrual cycle.
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2. A pregnant client at 10 weeks gestation asks the nurse when she should expect
to feel fetal movement for the first time. What is the most appropriate response by
the nurse?
A. "You should feel movement around 12 weeks."
B. "Quickening typically occurs between 16 and 20 weeks."
C. "Fetal movement is usually felt at 24 weeks."
D. "You won't feel movement until the third trimester."
Correct Answer: B. "Quickening typically occurs between 16 and 20 weeks."
Rationale: Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement, typically occurs between
16 and 20 weeks of gestation in primigravida clients. Multiparous clients may feel
movement earlier, around 14 to 16 weeks. Twelve weeks is too early, and 24 weeks is
later than expected.
3. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client at 28 weeks gestation. Which
finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
B. Platelet count 150,000/mm³
C. Blood glucose 145 mg/dL after 1-hour glucose challenge
D. White blood cell count 12,000/mm³
Correct Answer: C. Blood glucose 145 mg/dL after 1-hour glucose challenge
Rationale: A 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 140 mg/dL or greater is considered
abnormal and requires further evaluation with a 3-hour glucose tolerance test.
Hemoglobin of 11.5 g/dL is within normal limits for pregnancy. Platelet count of
150,000/mm³ is at the lower limit of normal but acceptable. White blood cell count of
12,000/mm³ is a normal physiological change in pregnancy due to increased leukocyte
production.
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4. A nurse is providing education to a client at 12 weeks gestation about nutrition
during pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further
teaching?
A. "I will increase my folic acid intake to 600 mcg daily."
B. "I will eat plenty of leafy green vegetables and citrus fruits."
C. "I will limit my caffeine intake to 500 mg per day."
D. "I will drink at least 8 to 10 glasses of water daily."
Correct Answer: C. "I will limit my caffeine intake to 500 mg per day."
Rationale: Caffeine intake during pregnancy should be limited to 200 mg per day, not
500 mg. High caffeine intake is associated with increased risk of miscarriage and low
birth weight. Folic acid 600 mcg daily, consumption of leafy greens and citrus fruits, and
adequate hydration are appropriate.
5. A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks gestation who reports a sudden gush of
fluid from the vagina. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Perform a sterile speculum examination
B. Check the fetal heart rate
C. Test the fluid with nitrazine paper
D. Notify the provider
Correct Answer: B. Check the fetal heart rate
Rationale: When a client reports rupture of membranes, the priority is to assess fetal
well-being by checking the fetal heart rate. This ensures the fetus is not in distress. After
confirming fetal well-being, the nurse would then test the fluid, assess for cord
prolapse, and notify the provider.
6. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about danger signs that require immediate
medical attention. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
MATERNAL-NEWBORN NURSING EXAM COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS
LATEST EDITION 2026 – 2027 VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
Maternal-Newborn Nursing – Comprehensive Questions with Detailed Rationales
SUMMARIZED POINT EXAM COVERAGE
1. Antepartum Care and Assessment (30 questions): Prenatal assessment,
gestational dating, prenatal nutrition, danger signs, fetal development, and routine
prenatal care including laboratory testing and screenings.
2. Intrapartum Care and Fetal Monitoring (30 questions): Labor stages, fetal heart
rate monitoring, contraction patterns, pain management, positions for labor, and
nursing interventions during delivery.
3. Postpartum Assessment and Care (30 questions): Postpartum physical
assessment (BUBBLE-HE), uterine involution, lochia, perineal care, breastfeeding
support, and postpartum complications including hemorrhage and infection.
4. Newborn Assessment and Care (30 questions): APGAR scoring, newborn physical
examination, gestational age assessment, newborn reflexes, thermoregulation, and
routine newborn care including vitamin K and eye prophylaxis.
5. High-Risk Pregnancy Complications (30 questions): Gestational diabetes,
preeclampsia/eclampsia, placenta previa, placental abruption, preterm labor, and
preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM).
6. Labor and Delivery Complications (30 questions): Shoulder dystocia, prolapsed
cord, fetal distress, operative deliveries (cesarean, forceps, vacuum), and obstetric
emergencies including uterine rupture and amniotic fluid embolism.
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7. Postpartum Complications (30 questions): Postpartum hemorrhage, endometritis,
mastitis, postpartum depression, and thromboembolic disorders.
8. Newborn Complications (30 questions): Respiratory distress syndrome,
hyperbilirubinemia, hypoglycemia, sepsis, congenital anomalies, and neonatal
abstinence syndrome.
9. Reproductive Health and Family Planning (30 questions): Contraception methods,
infertility, sexually transmitted infections, and menopause management.
10. Medications in Maternal-Newborn Nursing (30 questions): Oxytocin, magnesium
sulfate, terbutaline, RhoGAM, vitamin K, and other medications used in obstetric and
neonatal care.
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE AND ASSESSMENT (Questions 1-30)
1. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client whose last
menstrual period (LMP) began on March 10. Using Naegele's rule, what is the
estimated date of delivery?
A. December 10
B. December 17
C. December 24
D. December 3
Correct Answer: B. December 17
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates the EDD by subtracting 3 months from the first day
of the LMP and adding 7 days, then adding 1 year. March 10 minus 3 months equals
December 10; adding 7 days gives December 17. This is the standard method for
estimating the date of delivery based on a regular 28-day menstrual cycle.
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2. A pregnant client at 10 weeks gestation asks the nurse when she should expect
to feel fetal movement for the first time. What is the most appropriate response by
the nurse?
A. "You should feel movement around 12 weeks."
B. "Quickening typically occurs between 16 and 20 weeks."
C. "Fetal movement is usually felt at 24 weeks."
D. "You won't feel movement until the third trimester."
Correct Answer: B. "Quickening typically occurs between 16 and 20 weeks."
Rationale: Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement, typically occurs between
16 and 20 weeks of gestation in primigravida clients. Multiparous clients may feel
movement earlier, around 14 to 16 weeks. Twelve weeks is too early, and 24 weeks is
later than expected.
3. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client at 28 weeks gestation. Which
finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
B. Platelet count 150,000/mm³
C. Blood glucose 145 mg/dL after 1-hour glucose challenge
D. White blood cell count 12,000/mm³
Correct Answer: C. Blood glucose 145 mg/dL after 1-hour glucose challenge
Rationale: A 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 140 mg/dL or greater is considered
abnormal and requires further evaluation with a 3-hour glucose tolerance test.
Hemoglobin of 11.5 g/dL is within normal limits for pregnancy. Platelet count of
150,000/mm³ is at the lower limit of normal but acceptable. White blood cell count of
12,000/mm³ is a normal physiological change in pregnancy due to increased leukocyte
production.
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4. A nurse is providing education to a client at 12 weeks gestation about nutrition
during pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further
teaching?
A. "I will increase my folic acid intake to 600 mcg daily."
B. "I will eat plenty of leafy green vegetables and citrus fruits."
C. "I will limit my caffeine intake to 500 mg per day."
D. "I will drink at least 8 to 10 glasses of water daily."
Correct Answer: C. "I will limit my caffeine intake to 500 mg per day."
Rationale: Caffeine intake during pregnancy should be limited to 200 mg per day, not
500 mg. High caffeine intake is associated with increased risk of miscarriage and low
birth weight. Folic acid 600 mcg daily, consumption of leafy greens and citrus fruits, and
adequate hydration are appropriate.
5. A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks gestation who reports a sudden gush of
fluid from the vagina. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Perform a sterile speculum examination
B. Check the fetal heart rate
C. Test the fluid with nitrazine paper
D. Notify the provider
Correct Answer: B. Check the fetal heart rate
Rationale: When a client reports rupture of membranes, the priority is to assess fetal
well-being by checking the fetal heart rate. This ensures the fetus is not in distress. After
confirming fetal well-being, the nurse would then test the fluid, assess for cord
prolapse, and notify the provider.
6. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about danger signs that require immediate
medical attention. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
