NRNP 6630 Week 8 Assignment Practice Exam | 120
Psychopharmacology Questions with Answers and
Rationales
Foundations of pharmacology
1. What does oral bioavailability describe?
A. The fraction of a dose reaching systemic circulation unchanged
B. The maximal receptor response
C. The fraction bound to receptors
D. The time required for renal elimination
2. A drug follows first-order elimination. What remains after four half-lives with no
additional doses?
A. 6.25%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 0%
3. Which variable most directly determines a loading dose for a target plasma
concentration?
A. Elimination rate alone
B. Renal clearance alone
C. Dosing interval alone
D. Volume of distribution
4.Which variable most directly determines the maintenance dose rate at a
target steady-state concentration?
A. Clearance
B. Volume of distribution alone
C. Receptor affinity alone
D. Tablet color
1
,5. With linear kinetics, approximately when is steady state approached during
repeated dosing?
A. Only after drug discontinuation
B. After four to five half-lives
C. After exactly 24 hours for every drug
D. After one dose for every drug
6.A strong CYP inhibitor is added to an active drug primarily metabolized by that
enzyme. What is the likely result?
A. Reduced absorption in every case
B. Increased drug exposure
C. Increased clearance
D. Guaranteed loss of efficacy
2
,7. What can a strong enzyme inducer do to an active substrate drug?
A. Prevent renal excretion
B. Increase receptor affinity
C. Immediately eliminate all adverse effects
D. Lower its plasma concentration
8. Which finding indicates a narrow therapeutic index?
A. All patients require the same dose
B. The drug has no interactions
C. Toxic doses are close to effective doses
D. The drug is always safe in pregnancy
9. A reversible competitive antagonist typically causes which concentration-response
change?
A. A rightward shift with preserved maximal response if enough agonist is given
B. A permanently increased maximal response
C. A leftward shift with increased potency
D. Irreversible receptor destruction
10. An older adult has reduced renal function. Which prescribing principle is most
appropriate?
A. Use age alone to double the dose
B. Assume normal clearance if creatinine appears normal
C. Assess drug-specific renal dosing and monitor response
D. Avoid every medication
Core psychiatric medication safety
11. What should patients expect when starting an SSRI for depression?
A. Immediate dependence after one dose
B. Full remission within one hour
C. Therapeutic benefit usually develops over several weeks
D. No need for follow-up
3
, 12.A patient taking sertraline and tramadol develops agitation, diaphoresis, and
clonus. What is the likely syndrome?
A. Uncomplicated opioid withdrawal only
B. Iron overload
C. Primary hypothyroidism
D. Serotonin syndrome
4
Psychopharmacology Questions with Answers and
Rationales
Foundations of pharmacology
1. What does oral bioavailability describe?
A. The fraction of a dose reaching systemic circulation unchanged
B. The maximal receptor response
C. The fraction bound to receptors
D. The time required for renal elimination
2. A drug follows first-order elimination. What remains after four half-lives with no
additional doses?
A. 6.25%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 0%
3. Which variable most directly determines a loading dose for a target plasma
concentration?
A. Elimination rate alone
B. Renal clearance alone
C. Dosing interval alone
D. Volume of distribution
4.Which variable most directly determines the maintenance dose rate at a
target steady-state concentration?
A. Clearance
B. Volume of distribution alone
C. Receptor affinity alone
D. Tablet color
1
,5. With linear kinetics, approximately when is steady state approached during
repeated dosing?
A. Only after drug discontinuation
B. After four to five half-lives
C. After exactly 24 hours for every drug
D. After one dose for every drug
6.A strong CYP inhibitor is added to an active drug primarily metabolized by that
enzyme. What is the likely result?
A. Reduced absorption in every case
B. Increased drug exposure
C. Increased clearance
D. Guaranteed loss of efficacy
2
,7. What can a strong enzyme inducer do to an active substrate drug?
A. Prevent renal excretion
B. Increase receptor affinity
C. Immediately eliminate all adverse effects
D. Lower its plasma concentration
8. Which finding indicates a narrow therapeutic index?
A. All patients require the same dose
B. The drug has no interactions
C. Toxic doses are close to effective doses
D. The drug is always safe in pregnancy
9. A reversible competitive antagonist typically causes which concentration-response
change?
A. A rightward shift with preserved maximal response if enough agonist is given
B. A permanently increased maximal response
C. A leftward shift with increased potency
D. Irreversible receptor destruction
10. An older adult has reduced renal function. Which prescribing principle is most
appropriate?
A. Use age alone to double the dose
B. Assume normal clearance if creatinine appears normal
C. Assess drug-specific renal dosing and monitor response
D. Avoid every medication
Core psychiatric medication safety
11. What should patients expect when starting an SSRI for depression?
A. Immediate dependence after one dose
B. Full remission within one hour
C. Therapeutic benefit usually develops over several weeks
D. No need for follow-up
3
, 12.A patient taking sertraline and tramadol develops agitation, diaphoresis, and
clonus. What is the likely syndrome?
A. Uncomplicated opioid withdrawal only
B. Iron overload
C. Primary hypothyroidism
D. Serotonin syndrome
4
