HOAG ECG
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Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED 100%
Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
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1. What is the normal QT interval?
a. 0.12-0.20 s
b. 0.36-0.44 s
c. 0.50-0.60 s
d. 0.04-0.08 s - CORRECT ANSWER b. 0.36-0.44 s
Rationale: The normal QT interval is 0.36-0.44 s (about 360-440 ms).
2. What is the rate range of ventricular tachycardia?
a. 40-60 bpm
b. 60-100 bpm
c. 110-250 bpm
d. Above 400 bpm - CORRECT ANSWER c. 110-250 bpm
Rationale: Vtach is a fast rhythm, with a rate of about 110-250 bpm.
3. What is the high limit of the QT interval?
a. 300 ms
b. 400 ms
c. 440 ms
d. 500 ms - CORRECT ANSWER d. 500 ms
Rationale: A QT above 500 ms is the high limit and is considered
dangerous.
4. What does the QT interval represent?
a. Total duration of atrial depolarization only
b. Total duration of ventricular depolarization and repolarization
c. Time for conduction through the AV node
d. Time between two R waves - CORRECT ANSWER b. Total duration of
ventricular depolarization and repolarization
Rationale: The QT interval covers the whole ventricular cycle, from the start
of the QRS to the end of the T wave.
5. How does heart rate (HR) affect the QT interval?
,a. The higher the HR, the longer the QT interval
b. The higher the HR, the shorter the QT interval
c. HR has no effect on the QT interval
d. The lower the HR, the shorter the QT interval - CORRECT ANSWER b.
The higher the HR, the shorter the QT interval
Rationale: QT and HR are inversely related, which is why QT is often
corrected for rate.
6. Which group contains three medications that increase the QT
interval?
a. Haldol, Tikosyn, Amiodarone
b. Lisinopril, Metoprolol, Atorvastatin
c. Aspirin, Heparin, Warfarin
d. Insulin, Metformin, Glipizide - CORRECT ANSWER a. Haldol, Tikosyn,
Amiodarone
Rationale: Haldol, Tikosyn and Amiodarone all prolong the QT interval.
7. Where does the pacing spike appear in atrial pacing?
a. Just before the P wave
b. Just before the QRS complex
c. Just after the T wave
d. Just before the T wave - CORRECT ANSWER a. Just before the P wave
Rationale: The atrial spike precedes the P wave because it triggers atrial
depolarization.
8. Where does the pacing spike appear in ventricular pacing?
a. Just before the P wave
b. Just before the QRS complex
c. After the T wave
d. In the middle of the ST segment - CORRECT ANSWER b. Just before
the QRS complex
Rationale: The ventricular spike precedes the wide QRS it triggers.
9. Atrial and ventricular pacing together is also known as what?
a. Single chamber pacing
b. Dual chamber pacing
c. Demand pacing only
d. Asynchronous atrial pacing - CORRECT ANSWER b. Dual chamber
pacing
,Rationale: Dual chamber pacing paces both chambers, with a spike before
the P wave and a spike before the QRS.
10. In the pacemaker code, what does the 1st letter indicate?
a. Which chamber is sensed
b. Which chamber will be paced
c. The pacemaker's response to sensing
d. Whether the pacemaker is rate responsive - CORRECT ANSWER b.
Which chamber will be paced
Rationale: The 1st letter is the chamber paced (A, V or D).
11. In the pacemaker code, what does the 2nd letter indicate?
a. Which chamber will be paced
b. Which chamber is sensed by the pacemaker
c. The pacemaker's response to sensing
d. The battery status - CORRECT ANSWER b. Which chamber is sensed
by the pacemaker
Rationale: The 2nd letter is the chamber sensed.
12. In the pacemaker code, what does the 3rd letter indicate?
a. The chamber paced
b. The chamber sensed
c. The pacemaker's response to sensing the patient's natural heart activity
d. The pacing rate - CORRECT ANSWER c. The pacemaker's response to
sensing the patient's natural heart activity
Rationale: The 3rd letter is the response to sensing (I = inhibit, T = trigger,
D = both).
13. Which finding describes an idioventricular escape rhythm?
a. HR above 100 bpm, narrow QRS, normal P waves
b. HR below 50 bpm, no P waves, prolonged (wide) QRS
c. HR 60-100 bpm, regular P waves
d. HR above 250 bpm, no P waves - CORRECT ANSWER b. HR below 50
bpm, no P waves, prolonged (wide) QRS
Rationale: The ventricles fire at their own slow rate with no atrial activity, so
there are no P waves and the QRS is wide.
14. An idioventricular agonal rhythm has a heart rate below what value?
a. 20 bpm
b. 50 bpm
, c. 60 bpm
d. 100 bpm - CORRECT ANSWER a. 20 bpm
Rationale: The agonal rhythm is even slower than the escape rhythm, with
a rate below 20 bpm.
15. Which position is preferred when placing a transvenous pacing
wire?
a. Lay the patient on the right side
b. Lay the patient on the left side
c. Lay the patient prone
d. Lay the patient in Trendelenburg only - CORRECT ANSWER b. Lay the
patient on the left side
Rationale: Lying the patient on the left side is the preferred position in your
notes.
16. Which pacemaker mode paces the atria 100% of the time with
no sensing capability?
a. AAI
b. AOO
c. VVI
d. DDD - CORRECT ANSWER b. AOO
Rationale: In AOO the O means no sensing, so it paces the atria
continuously. It is used post-op cardiac or valvular surgery in the presence
of AV block.
17. Which mode paces the atria, senses natural atrial activity and
inhibits pacing if natural activity occurs?
a. AOO
b. AAI
c. VVI
d. DDI - CORRECT ANSWER b. AAI
Rationale: In AAI the third letter I means inhibit. It is used for sinus node
dysfunction with good AV function, SB, sinus arrest, SA block and afib.
18. Which mode paces the ventricles, senses natural ventricular
activity and inhibits pacing if natural ventricular activity occurs?
a. VVI
b. AAI
c. DDD
d. AOO - CORRECT ANSWER a. VVI
Rationale: VVI paces and senses the ventricle and inhibits when it senses
Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace Exams Includes
Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED 100%
Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!!
1. What is the normal QT interval?
a. 0.12-0.20 s
b. 0.36-0.44 s
c. 0.50-0.60 s
d. 0.04-0.08 s - CORRECT ANSWER b. 0.36-0.44 s
Rationale: The normal QT interval is 0.36-0.44 s (about 360-440 ms).
2. What is the rate range of ventricular tachycardia?
a. 40-60 bpm
b. 60-100 bpm
c. 110-250 bpm
d. Above 400 bpm - CORRECT ANSWER c. 110-250 bpm
Rationale: Vtach is a fast rhythm, with a rate of about 110-250 bpm.
3. What is the high limit of the QT interval?
a. 300 ms
b. 400 ms
c. 440 ms
d. 500 ms - CORRECT ANSWER d. 500 ms
Rationale: A QT above 500 ms is the high limit and is considered
dangerous.
4. What does the QT interval represent?
a. Total duration of atrial depolarization only
b. Total duration of ventricular depolarization and repolarization
c. Time for conduction through the AV node
d. Time between two R waves - CORRECT ANSWER b. Total duration of
ventricular depolarization and repolarization
Rationale: The QT interval covers the whole ventricular cycle, from the start
of the QRS to the end of the T wave.
5. How does heart rate (HR) affect the QT interval?
,a. The higher the HR, the longer the QT interval
b. The higher the HR, the shorter the QT interval
c. HR has no effect on the QT interval
d. The lower the HR, the shorter the QT interval - CORRECT ANSWER b.
The higher the HR, the shorter the QT interval
Rationale: QT and HR are inversely related, which is why QT is often
corrected for rate.
6. Which group contains three medications that increase the QT
interval?
a. Haldol, Tikosyn, Amiodarone
b. Lisinopril, Metoprolol, Atorvastatin
c. Aspirin, Heparin, Warfarin
d. Insulin, Metformin, Glipizide - CORRECT ANSWER a. Haldol, Tikosyn,
Amiodarone
Rationale: Haldol, Tikosyn and Amiodarone all prolong the QT interval.
7. Where does the pacing spike appear in atrial pacing?
a. Just before the P wave
b. Just before the QRS complex
c. Just after the T wave
d. Just before the T wave - CORRECT ANSWER a. Just before the P wave
Rationale: The atrial spike precedes the P wave because it triggers atrial
depolarization.
8. Where does the pacing spike appear in ventricular pacing?
a. Just before the P wave
b. Just before the QRS complex
c. After the T wave
d. In the middle of the ST segment - CORRECT ANSWER b. Just before
the QRS complex
Rationale: The ventricular spike precedes the wide QRS it triggers.
9. Atrial and ventricular pacing together is also known as what?
a. Single chamber pacing
b. Dual chamber pacing
c. Demand pacing only
d. Asynchronous atrial pacing - CORRECT ANSWER b. Dual chamber
pacing
,Rationale: Dual chamber pacing paces both chambers, with a spike before
the P wave and a spike before the QRS.
10. In the pacemaker code, what does the 1st letter indicate?
a. Which chamber is sensed
b. Which chamber will be paced
c. The pacemaker's response to sensing
d. Whether the pacemaker is rate responsive - CORRECT ANSWER b.
Which chamber will be paced
Rationale: The 1st letter is the chamber paced (A, V or D).
11. In the pacemaker code, what does the 2nd letter indicate?
a. Which chamber will be paced
b. Which chamber is sensed by the pacemaker
c. The pacemaker's response to sensing
d. The battery status - CORRECT ANSWER b. Which chamber is sensed
by the pacemaker
Rationale: The 2nd letter is the chamber sensed.
12. In the pacemaker code, what does the 3rd letter indicate?
a. The chamber paced
b. The chamber sensed
c. The pacemaker's response to sensing the patient's natural heart activity
d. The pacing rate - CORRECT ANSWER c. The pacemaker's response to
sensing the patient's natural heart activity
Rationale: The 3rd letter is the response to sensing (I = inhibit, T = trigger,
D = both).
13. Which finding describes an idioventricular escape rhythm?
a. HR above 100 bpm, narrow QRS, normal P waves
b. HR below 50 bpm, no P waves, prolonged (wide) QRS
c. HR 60-100 bpm, regular P waves
d. HR above 250 bpm, no P waves - CORRECT ANSWER b. HR below 50
bpm, no P waves, prolonged (wide) QRS
Rationale: The ventricles fire at their own slow rate with no atrial activity, so
there are no P waves and the QRS is wide.
14. An idioventricular agonal rhythm has a heart rate below what value?
a. 20 bpm
b. 50 bpm
, c. 60 bpm
d. 100 bpm - CORRECT ANSWER a. 20 bpm
Rationale: The agonal rhythm is even slower than the escape rhythm, with
a rate below 20 bpm.
15. Which position is preferred when placing a transvenous pacing
wire?
a. Lay the patient on the right side
b. Lay the patient on the left side
c. Lay the patient prone
d. Lay the patient in Trendelenburg only - CORRECT ANSWER b. Lay the
patient on the left side
Rationale: Lying the patient on the left side is the preferred position in your
notes.
16. Which pacemaker mode paces the atria 100% of the time with
no sensing capability?
a. AAI
b. AOO
c. VVI
d. DDD - CORRECT ANSWER b. AOO
Rationale: In AOO the O means no sensing, so it paces the atria
continuously. It is used post-op cardiac or valvular surgery in the presence
of AV block.
17. Which mode paces the atria, senses natural atrial activity and
inhibits pacing if natural activity occurs?
a. AOO
b. AAI
c. VVI
d. DDI - CORRECT ANSWER b. AAI
Rationale: In AAI the third letter I means inhibit. It is used for sinus node
dysfunction with good AV function, SB, sinus arrest, SA block and afib.
18. Which mode paces the ventricles, senses natural ventricular
activity and inhibits pacing if natural ventricular activity occurs?
a. VVI
b. AAI
c. DDD
d. AOO - CORRECT ANSWER a. VVI
Rationale: VVI paces and senses the ventricle and inhibits when it senses
