A&P Exam 5 Questions and Answers
with Solutions Updated 2025/2026
Study Guide
SECTION I — BLOOD & HEMOSTASIS (Questions 1–15)
1. Which plasma protein is most abundant and primarily responsible for
maintaining colloid osmotic pressure?
• A. Globulin
• B. Albumin
• C. Fibrinogen
• D. Transferrin
Albumin constitutes about 60% of plasma protein and is the chief contributor
to colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressure, which pulls water back into capillaries.
Globulins include antibodies and transport proteins; fibrinogen is a clotting
precursor; transferrin is an iron carrier.
2. SATA: Which of the following are characteristics of erythrocytes? Select all
that apply.
• A. Biconcave disc shape
• B. Lack a nucleus in mature form
• C. Contain abundant mitochondria
• D. Contain hemoglobin for oxygen transport
• E. Capable of mitotic division
, Mature erythrocytes are biconcave, anucleate, and lack mitochondria (they
rely on glycolysis), which maximizes space for hemoglobin. They cannot divide
because they have no nucleus.
3. The hormone that directly stimulates erythrocyte production in response to
hypoxia is:
• A. Thrombopoietin
• B. Erythropoietin
• C. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor
• D. Aldosterone
Erythropoietin (EPO), produced mainly by the kidneys, stimulates red bone
marrow to increase erythropoiesis when oxygen delivery falls.
4. Which leukocyte is the most abundant in a normal differential count and is
the first to arrive at an acute infection site?
• A. Lymphocyte
• B. Monocyte
• C. Neutrophil
• D. Eosinophil
Neutrophils comprise 50–70% of circulating leukocytes and are the primary
early responders to bacterial infection via phagocytosis.
5. A patient's lab shows prolonged bleeding time with normal platelet count and
normal PT/aPTT. Which disorder is most likely?
• A. Hemophilia A
, • B. von Willebrand disease
• C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
• D. Vitamin K deficiency
von Willebrand disease impairs platelet adhesion (prolonged bleeding time)
while coagulation studies remain normal. Hemophilia affects aPTT; DIC and
vitamin K deficiency affect PT/aPTT.
6. SATA: Which events occur during hemostasis? Select all that apply.
• A. Vascular spasm
• B. Platelet plug formation
• C. Coagulation cascade activation
• D. Vasodilation of the injured vessel
• E. Clot retraction and dissolution
Hemostasis involves vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation, and
eventual clot retraction/fibrinolysis. Vasodilation would worsen bleeding and is
not part of hemostasis.
7. The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by:
• A. Plasmin
• B. Thrombin
• C. Tissue plasminogen activator
• D. Protein C
, Thrombin cleaves fibrinogen into fibrin monomers that polymerize into the
clot. Plasmin dissolves clots; tPA activates plasminogen; protein C inhibits clotting
factors.
8. Which blood type is considered the universal donor for packed red blood
cells?
• A. AB positive
• B. A negative
• C. O negative
• D. B positive
O negative lacks A, B, and Rh D antigens, minimizing recipient antibody
reactions. AB positive is the universal recipient.
9. A Rh-negative mother gives birth to an Rh-positive infant. Which condition is
prevented by administering RhoGAM?
• A. Erythroblastosis fetalis in the current pregnancy
• B. Hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies
• C. ABO incompatibility
• D. Neonatal thrombocytopenia
RhoGAM prevents maternal sensitization to Rh D antigen, protecting
subsequent Rh-positive fetuses from hemolytic disease of the newborn.
10. Which of the following correctly describes the role of calcium in coagulation?
• A. It dissolves the fibrin clot
• B. It inhibits thrombin
with Solutions Updated 2025/2026
Study Guide
SECTION I — BLOOD & HEMOSTASIS (Questions 1–15)
1. Which plasma protein is most abundant and primarily responsible for
maintaining colloid osmotic pressure?
• A. Globulin
• B. Albumin
• C. Fibrinogen
• D. Transferrin
Albumin constitutes about 60% of plasma protein and is the chief contributor
to colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressure, which pulls water back into capillaries.
Globulins include antibodies and transport proteins; fibrinogen is a clotting
precursor; transferrin is an iron carrier.
2. SATA: Which of the following are characteristics of erythrocytes? Select all
that apply.
• A. Biconcave disc shape
• B. Lack a nucleus in mature form
• C. Contain abundant mitochondria
• D. Contain hemoglobin for oxygen transport
• E. Capable of mitotic division
, Mature erythrocytes are biconcave, anucleate, and lack mitochondria (they
rely on glycolysis), which maximizes space for hemoglobin. They cannot divide
because they have no nucleus.
3. The hormone that directly stimulates erythrocyte production in response to
hypoxia is:
• A. Thrombopoietin
• B. Erythropoietin
• C. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor
• D. Aldosterone
Erythropoietin (EPO), produced mainly by the kidneys, stimulates red bone
marrow to increase erythropoiesis when oxygen delivery falls.
4. Which leukocyte is the most abundant in a normal differential count and is
the first to arrive at an acute infection site?
• A. Lymphocyte
• B. Monocyte
• C. Neutrophil
• D. Eosinophil
Neutrophils comprise 50–70% of circulating leukocytes and are the primary
early responders to bacterial infection via phagocytosis.
5. A patient's lab shows prolonged bleeding time with normal platelet count and
normal PT/aPTT. Which disorder is most likely?
• A. Hemophilia A
, • B. von Willebrand disease
• C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
• D. Vitamin K deficiency
von Willebrand disease impairs platelet adhesion (prolonged bleeding time)
while coagulation studies remain normal. Hemophilia affects aPTT; DIC and
vitamin K deficiency affect PT/aPTT.
6. SATA: Which events occur during hemostasis? Select all that apply.
• A. Vascular spasm
• B. Platelet plug formation
• C. Coagulation cascade activation
• D. Vasodilation of the injured vessel
• E. Clot retraction and dissolution
Hemostasis involves vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation, and
eventual clot retraction/fibrinolysis. Vasodilation would worsen bleeding and is
not part of hemostasis.
7. The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by:
• A. Plasmin
• B. Thrombin
• C. Tissue plasminogen activator
• D. Protein C
, Thrombin cleaves fibrinogen into fibrin monomers that polymerize into the
clot. Plasmin dissolves clots; tPA activates plasminogen; protein C inhibits clotting
factors.
8. Which blood type is considered the universal donor for packed red blood
cells?
• A. AB positive
• B. A negative
• C. O negative
• D. B positive
O negative lacks A, B, and Rh D antigens, minimizing recipient antibody
reactions. AB positive is the universal recipient.
9. A Rh-negative mother gives birth to an Rh-positive infant. Which condition is
prevented by administering RhoGAM?
• A. Erythroblastosis fetalis in the current pregnancy
• B. Hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies
• C. ABO incompatibility
• D. Neonatal thrombocytopenia
RhoGAM prevents maternal sensitization to Rh D antigen, protecting
subsequent Rh-positive fetuses from hemolytic disease of the newborn.
10. Which of the following correctly describes the role of calcium in coagulation?
• A. It dissolves the fibrin clot
• B. It inhibits thrombin
