NUR 210 Exams 1-4 Galen Pharmacology – (2026) Actual
Questions and Answers (PDF)
EXAM 1: Principles, Pharmacokinetics, ANS, Medication Safety
Questions 1–50
Q1. Which process reduces the amount of drug reaching systemic circulation after
oral administration?
A. Distribution
B. First-pass effect
C. Protein binding
D. Renal excretion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first-pass effect occurs when orally administered drugs are
metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, reducing
bioavailability.
Q2. A drug has a half-life of 6 hours. Approximately how long until most of the
drug is eliminated?
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 30 hours
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It takes about 5 half-lives for most drugs to be eliminated. 5 × 6
= 30 hours.
Q3. A drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires:
A. No monitoring
B. Routine serum drug levels
C. Only PRN dosing
D. Double the usual dose
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Narrow therapeutic index drugs have small differences
between therapeutic and toxic doses, so serum levels are monitored closely.
Q4. A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a response is called a(n):
A. Antagonist
B. Agonist
C. Blocker
D. Inhibitor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An agonist activates the receptor and produces a therapeutic
effect.
Q5. Which factor increases drug distribution to tissues?
A. High protein binding
B. Low lipid solubility
C. High lipid solubility
D. Large molecule size
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lipid-soluble drugs cross membranes more easily and distribute
widely.
Q6. Which substance is a known CYP450 inducer?
A. Ketoconazole
B. Grapefruit juice
C. Rifampin
D. Erythromycin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin induces CYP450 enzymes, decreasing levels of many
drugs.
,Q7. Which substance is a known CYP450 inhibitor?
A. Rifampin
B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
D. Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ketoconazole inhibits CYP450 enzymes, increasing levels of
some drugs.
Q8. Medication reconciliation is performed to:
A. Increase drug doses
B. Compare current medications with newly ordered medications
C. Replace nursing assessment
D. Eliminate generic substitutions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reconciliation identifies discrepancies, duplications, and
interactions.
Q9. Which is a high-alert medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Insulin
C. Docusate
D. Multivitamin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin has a high risk of harm if used incorrectly.
Q10. Which are rights of medication administration? Select all that apply.
A. Right patient
B. Right drug
, C. Right dose
D. Right route
E. Right time
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: These are core rights; documentation and reason are also
important.
Q11. An adverse drug reaction is best described as:
A. Expected mild effect
B. Harmful unintended effect
C. Therapeutic response
D. Placebo effect
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Adverse reactions are unintended and harmful.
Q12. Which is the priority nursing action for suspected anaphylaxis?
A. Document
B. Give epinephrine
C. Apply oxygen
D. Obtain vital signs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epinephrine is first-line for anaphylaxis.
Q13. Which patient is at highest risk for drug toxicity?
A. Young adult with normal renal function
B. Older adult with renal impairment
C. Athlete with high fluid intake
D. Child with normal liver function
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reduced renal function decreases drug clearance.
Questions and Answers (PDF)
EXAM 1: Principles, Pharmacokinetics, ANS, Medication Safety
Questions 1–50
Q1. Which process reduces the amount of drug reaching systemic circulation after
oral administration?
A. Distribution
B. First-pass effect
C. Protein binding
D. Renal excretion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first-pass effect occurs when orally administered drugs are
metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, reducing
bioavailability.
Q2. A drug has a half-life of 6 hours. Approximately how long until most of the
drug is eliminated?
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 30 hours
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It takes about 5 half-lives for most drugs to be eliminated. 5 × 6
= 30 hours.
Q3. A drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires:
A. No monitoring
B. Routine serum drug levels
C. Only PRN dosing
D. Double the usual dose
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Narrow therapeutic index drugs have small differences
between therapeutic and toxic doses, so serum levels are monitored closely.
Q4. A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a response is called a(n):
A. Antagonist
B. Agonist
C. Blocker
D. Inhibitor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An agonist activates the receptor and produces a therapeutic
effect.
Q5. Which factor increases drug distribution to tissues?
A. High protein binding
B. Low lipid solubility
C. High lipid solubility
D. Large molecule size
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lipid-soluble drugs cross membranes more easily and distribute
widely.
Q6. Which substance is a known CYP450 inducer?
A. Ketoconazole
B. Grapefruit juice
C. Rifampin
D. Erythromycin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin induces CYP450 enzymes, decreasing levels of many
drugs.
,Q7. Which substance is a known CYP450 inhibitor?
A. Rifampin
B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
D. Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ketoconazole inhibits CYP450 enzymes, increasing levels of
some drugs.
Q8. Medication reconciliation is performed to:
A. Increase drug doses
B. Compare current medications with newly ordered medications
C. Replace nursing assessment
D. Eliminate generic substitutions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reconciliation identifies discrepancies, duplications, and
interactions.
Q9. Which is a high-alert medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Insulin
C. Docusate
D. Multivitamin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin has a high risk of harm if used incorrectly.
Q10. Which are rights of medication administration? Select all that apply.
A. Right patient
B. Right drug
, C. Right dose
D. Right route
E. Right time
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: These are core rights; documentation and reason are also
important.
Q11. An adverse drug reaction is best described as:
A. Expected mild effect
B. Harmful unintended effect
C. Therapeutic response
D. Placebo effect
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Adverse reactions are unintended and harmful.
Q12. Which is the priority nursing action for suspected anaphylaxis?
A. Document
B. Give epinephrine
C. Apply oxygen
D. Obtain vital signs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epinephrine is first-line for anaphylaxis.
Q13. Which patient is at highest risk for drug toxicity?
A. Young adult with normal renal function
B. Older adult with renal impairment
C. Athlete with high fluid intake
D. Child with normal liver function
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reduced renal function decreases drug clearance.
