Combat Medic 68W Fieldcraft 2 Exam C168W144 2026/2027 | 68W
Fieldcraft 2 Study Guide & Exam Prep | Combat Medic Fieldcraft 2 Practice
Questions with Detailed Rationales | Traumatic Brain Injury, Skull & Facial
Trauma, Eye Injuries, Abdominal & Pelvic Trauma, Musculoskeletal Injuries,
Shock, Hemorrhage, Burns, Triage, MASCAL, Casualty Assessment,
Evacuation, Tactical Combat Casualty Care, Field Medical Procedures,
Anatomy, Patient Assessment & Combat Medicine
Question 1: During the Care Under Fire phase of Tactical Combat Casualty Care,
what is the medic's first priority?
A. Establish a patent airway using a nasopharyngeal airway
B. Control massive extremity hemorrhage with a tourniquet
C. Return fire and suppress the enemy threat
D. Move the casualty to a covered position
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Return fire and suppress the enemy threat
Rationale: In the Care Under Fire phase, the primary threat is the ongoing hostile
fire. The medic's first action must be to return fire and gain fire superiority to
prevent further casualties and enable subsequent medical care. Medical
treatment is delayed until the tactical situation permits.
Question 2: What is the leading cause of preventable death on the battlefield?
A. Tension pneumothorax
B. Airway obstruction
C. Extremity hemorrhage
D. Hypothermia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Extremity hemorrhage
Rationale: Data from combat operations consistently demonstrates that extremity
hemorrhage is the most common cause of preventable death on the battlefield,
primarily because extremities are not protected by body armor. Rapid control
with a tourniquet is the intervention that most directly reduces mortality.
Question 3: Which assessment algorithm is used as the primary framework for
casualty evaluation in Tactical Field Care?
A. ABCDE
B. MARCH-PAWS
,C. SAMPLE
D. AVPU
CORRECT ANSWER: B. MARCH-PAWS
Rationale: MARCH-PAWS is the TCCC-specific assessment algorithm: Massive
hemorrhage, Airway, Respiration, Circulation, Hypothermia/Head injury, Pain,
Antibiotics, Wounds, Splinting. It prioritizes life-threatening conditions in the
order they should be addressed in a tactical environment.
Question 4: During Tactical Field Care, a casualty has a tourniquet applied to the
right thigh. What is the correct guidance regarding tourniquet removal?
A. Loosen the tourniquet every 30 minutes to allow perfusion
B. Remove the tourniquet once bleeding appears controlled
C. Do not remove the tourniquet until the casualty reaches a surgical facility
D. Convert the tourniquet to a pressure dressing after 2 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Do not remove the tourniquet until the casualty reaches a
surgical facility
Rationale: In the tactical setting, there is no safe time limit for tourniquet
application. Premature removal can result in rebleeding and death. The
tourniquet must remain in place until definitive surgical hemorrhage control is
available.
Question 5: Where should a Combat Application Tourniquet be placed on an
injured extremity?
A. Directly over the wound
B. One inch below the wound
C. As high as possible on the limb, near the junction of the limb and body
D. Two to three inches distal to the wound
CORRECT ANSWER: C. As high as possible on the limb, near the junction of the
limb and body
Rationale: Current TCCC guidelines recommend placing the tourniquet as high as
possible on the affected limb, near the junction of the limb and body. This ensures
complete arterial occlusion and prevents bleeding from collateral circulation.
,Question 6: Which airway adjunct is preferred for an unconscious casualty in
Tactical Field Care when no maxillofacial trauma is present?
A. Oropharyngeal airway
B. Nasopharyngeal airway
C. Endotracheal tube
D. Cricothyrotomy
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Nasopharyngeal airway
Rationale: The nasopharyngeal airway is the preferred initial airway adjunct in
TCCC because it can be placed in conscious or semi-conscious casualties, does not
stimulate a gag reflex as readily, and is better tolerated during transport.
Question 7: What is the primary indication for performing a needle chest
decompression in a casualty?
A. Open chest wound with audible air movement
B. Suspected tension pneumothorax with respiratory distress
C. Rib fracture with localized tenderness
D. Hemothorax confirmed by ultrasound
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Suspected tension pneumothorax with respiratory
distress
Rationale: Needle decompression is indicated for suspected tension
pneumothorax, which presents with severe respiratory distress and signs of
obstructive shock. Prompt decompression can be lifesaving.
Question 8: What is the primary purpose of applying a chest seal to an open
chest wound?
A. Immobilize fractured ribs
B. Prevent air from entering the pleural space through the wound
C. Increase intrathoracic pressure
D. Control bleeding from intercostal vessels
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Prevent air from entering the pleural space through the
wound
, Rationale: An occlusive chest seal prevents air from entering the chest cavity
through the open wound, which can lead to tension pneumothorax. The seal must
be monitored for effectiveness and burped if necessary.
Question 9: A casualty with a suspected pelvic fracture is in hemorrhagic shock.
What intervention is most appropriate?
A. Apply a pelvic binder at the level of the greater trochanters
B. Place the casualty in Trendelenburg position
C. Perform a diagnostic peritoneal lavage
D. Administer oral fluids for volume replacement
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Apply a pelvic binder at the level of the greater
trochanters
Rationale: A pelvic binder applied at the level of the greater trochanters reduces
pelvic volume and can tamponade venous bleeding from pelvic fractures. This is a
critical intervention for suspected pelvic fracture with hemodynamic instability.
Question 10: Which medication is included in the Combat Pill Pack for mild to
moderate pain when the casualty can still fight?
A. Morphine sulfate
B. Ketamine
C. Acetaminophen and meloxicam
D. Fentanyl lozenge
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Acetaminophen and meloxicam
Rationale: The Combat Pill Pack for casualties with mild to moderate pain who can
still fight contains acetaminophen 650 mg and meloxicam 15 mg. This
combination provides analgesia without impairing the casualty's ability to
continue tactical operations.
Question 11: What is the correct dose of ketamine for a casualty in hemorrhagic
shock requiring analgesia?
A. 100 mg intramuscularly
B. 50 mg intramuscularly or intranasally
Fieldcraft 2 Study Guide & Exam Prep | Combat Medic Fieldcraft 2 Practice
Questions with Detailed Rationales | Traumatic Brain Injury, Skull & Facial
Trauma, Eye Injuries, Abdominal & Pelvic Trauma, Musculoskeletal Injuries,
Shock, Hemorrhage, Burns, Triage, MASCAL, Casualty Assessment,
Evacuation, Tactical Combat Casualty Care, Field Medical Procedures,
Anatomy, Patient Assessment & Combat Medicine
Question 1: During the Care Under Fire phase of Tactical Combat Casualty Care,
what is the medic's first priority?
A. Establish a patent airway using a nasopharyngeal airway
B. Control massive extremity hemorrhage with a tourniquet
C. Return fire and suppress the enemy threat
D. Move the casualty to a covered position
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Return fire and suppress the enemy threat
Rationale: In the Care Under Fire phase, the primary threat is the ongoing hostile
fire. The medic's first action must be to return fire and gain fire superiority to
prevent further casualties and enable subsequent medical care. Medical
treatment is delayed until the tactical situation permits.
Question 2: What is the leading cause of preventable death on the battlefield?
A. Tension pneumothorax
B. Airway obstruction
C. Extremity hemorrhage
D. Hypothermia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Extremity hemorrhage
Rationale: Data from combat operations consistently demonstrates that extremity
hemorrhage is the most common cause of preventable death on the battlefield,
primarily because extremities are not protected by body armor. Rapid control
with a tourniquet is the intervention that most directly reduces mortality.
Question 3: Which assessment algorithm is used as the primary framework for
casualty evaluation in Tactical Field Care?
A. ABCDE
B. MARCH-PAWS
,C. SAMPLE
D. AVPU
CORRECT ANSWER: B. MARCH-PAWS
Rationale: MARCH-PAWS is the TCCC-specific assessment algorithm: Massive
hemorrhage, Airway, Respiration, Circulation, Hypothermia/Head injury, Pain,
Antibiotics, Wounds, Splinting. It prioritizes life-threatening conditions in the
order they should be addressed in a tactical environment.
Question 4: During Tactical Field Care, a casualty has a tourniquet applied to the
right thigh. What is the correct guidance regarding tourniquet removal?
A. Loosen the tourniquet every 30 minutes to allow perfusion
B. Remove the tourniquet once bleeding appears controlled
C. Do not remove the tourniquet until the casualty reaches a surgical facility
D. Convert the tourniquet to a pressure dressing after 2 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Do not remove the tourniquet until the casualty reaches a
surgical facility
Rationale: In the tactical setting, there is no safe time limit for tourniquet
application. Premature removal can result in rebleeding and death. The
tourniquet must remain in place until definitive surgical hemorrhage control is
available.
Question 5: Where should a Combat Application Tourniquet be placed on an
injured extremity?
A. Directly over the wound
B. One inch below the wound
C. As high as possible on the limb, near the junction of the limb and body
D. Two to three inches distal to the wound
CORRECT ANSWER: C. As high as possible on the limb, near the junction of the
limb and body
Rationale: Current TCCC guidelines recommend placing the tourniquet as high as
possible on the affected limb, near the junction of the limb and body. This ensures
complete arterial occlusion and prevents bleeding from collateral circulation.
,Question 6: Which airway adjunct is preferred for an unconscious casualty in
Tactical Field Care when no maxillofacial trauma is present?
A. Oropharyngeal airway
B. Nasopharyngeal airway
C. Endotracheal tube
D. Cricothyrotomy
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Nasopharyngeal airway
Rationale: The nasopharyngeal airway is the preferred initial airway adjunct in
TCCC because it can be placed in conscious or semi-conscious casualties, does not
stimulate a gag reflex as readily, and is better tolerated during transport.
Question 7: What is the primary indication for performing a needle chest
decompression in a casualty?
A. Open chest wound with audible air movement
B. Suspected tension pneumothorax with respiratory distress
C. Rib fracture with localized tenderness
D. Hemothorax confirmed by ultrasound
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Suspected tension pneumothorax with respiratory
distress
Rationale: Needle decompression is indicated for suspected tension
pneumothorax, which presents with severe respiratory distress and signs of
obstructive shock. Prompt decompression can be lifesaving.
Question 8: What is the primary purpose of applying a chest seal to an open
chest wound?
A. Immobilize fractured ribs
B. Prevent air from entering the pleural space through the wound
C. Increase intrathoracic pressure
D. Control bleeding from intercostal vessels
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Prevent air from entering the pleural space through the
wound
, Rationale: An occlusive chest seal prevents air from entering the chest cavity
through the open wound, which can lead to tension pneumothorax. The seal must
be monitored for effectiveness and burped if necessary.
Question 9: A casualty with a suspected pelvic fracture is in hemorrhagic shock.
What intervention is most appropriate?
A. Apply a pelvic binder at the level of the greater trochanters
B. Place the casualty in Trendelenburg position
C. Perform a diagnostic peritoneal lavage
D. Administer oral fluids for volume replacement
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Apply a pelvic binder at the level of the greater
trochanters
Rationale: A pelvic binder applied at the level of the greater trochanters reduces
pelvic volume and can tamponade venous bleeding from pelvic fractures. This is a
critical intervention for suspected pelvic fracture with hemodynamic instability.
Question 10: Which medication is included in the Combat Pill Pack for mild to
moderate pain when the casualty can still fight?
A. Morphine sulfate
B. Ketamine
C. Acetaminophen and meloxicam
D. Fentanyl lozenge
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Acetaminophen and meloxicam
Rationale: The Combat Pill Pack for casualties with mild to moderate pain who can
still fight contains acetaminophen 650 mg and meloxicam 15 mg. This
combination provides analgesia without impairing the casualty's ability to
continue tactical operations.
Question 11: What is the correct dose of ketamine for a casualty in hemorrhagic
shock requiring analgesia?
A. 100 mg intramuscularly
B. 50 mg intramuscularly or intranasally
