NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm Study Guide
& Practice Q&A | Chamberlain University Advanced
Pharmacology Fundamentals | Latest 2026/2027
Update | Verified Questions & Answers | Graded A+
SECTION I: Prescriptive Authority, Scope of Practice & Legal/Ethical Prescribing
Question 1
An APRN is reviewing state practice laws regarding prescriptive authority. Which of the following
items are within the scope of APRN prescriptive authority beyond standard prescription
medications? (Select All That Apply)
A. Durable medical equipment (DME) such as hospital beds and wheelchairs
B. Physical therapy and occupational therapy services
C. Handicap placards
D. Schedule II controlled substances
E. Over-the-counter vitamins and supplements
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: APRN prescriptive authority extends beyond writing medication prescriptions to
include therapeutic devices, DME, medical services (PT, OT, home health), handicap placards,
and controlled substances as permitted by state law and DEA registration . While OTC vitamins
are available without prescription, APRNs may recommend them, but they do not require
prescriptive authority per se. All items listed except E fall within the formal scope of prescriptive
authority governed by state practice laws.
Question 2
A nurse practitioner is practicing in a state with “full practice authority.” Which statement
accurately describes the implications for prescribing?
A. The NP may prescribe only non-controlled substances independently
B. The NP may evaluate, diagnose, order tests, and prescribe medications including controlled
substances without physician oversight
C. The NP must maintain a collaborative agreement with a physician for all prescribing
D. The NP may prescribe independently but must have a physician co-sign all controlled
substance prescriptions
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Full practice authority allows NPs to evaluate patients, diagnose, order and
interpret diagnostic tests, initiate and manage treatments, and prescribe medications including
controlled substances without physician oversight or collaborative agreements . Reduced and
restricted practice states impose varying levels of physician involvement.
Question 3
An APRN is considering prescribing a medication for a close family member who is visiting from
out of town and has an acute illness. According to prudent prescribing practices, what is the
most appropriate action?
A. Prescribe the medication since the APRN has the clinical knowledge to do so
B. Prescribe the medication only if it is a non-controlled substance
C. Avoid prescribing for family members and refer the patient to another provider
D. Prescribe the medication and document it as a professional courtesy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prudent prescribing practices explicitly include avoidance of prescribing
medications for self, family, or friends . This boundary protects patient safety and reduces legal
liability by ensuring objective clinical decision-making. A provider-patient relationship should be
established with appropriate documentation before prescribing.
Question 4
Which of the following represents documentation that is required for prudent prescribing
practices? (Select All That Apply)
A. Documentation of a provider-patient relationship
B. Documentation of a thorough history and physical examination
C. Documentation of discussions regarding risks, side effects, and therapy options
D. Documentation of drug monitoring or titration plan
E. Documentation of the patient‘s insurance formulary status
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Prudent prescribing requires documentation of the provider-patient relationship,
a thorough history and physical, discussions of risks/side effects/options, and a drug
,monitoring/titration plan . Insurance formulary status is relevant to cost considerations but is
not a required component of prudent prescribing documentation.
Question 5
A patient with chronic pain asks the APRN to prescribe a Schedule II opioid. Which of the
following factors primarily determines whether the APRN may prescribe this medication
independently?
A. The patient’s insurance coverage
B. The DEA schedule of the medication
C. Applicable state practice and prescriptive-authority laws
D. The pharmacy’s policy on controlled substances
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: State practice and prescriptive-authority laws determine the extent of an NP’s
authority to prescribe controlled substances, including Schedule II opioids . Some states require
collaborative agreements or physician oversight for controlled substance prescribing even when
the NP has general prescriptive authority.
Question 6
An APRN is explaining the concept of “rational drug selection” to a student. Which of the
following considerations should be included? (Select All That Apply)
A. Diagnosis based on clinical reasoning
B. Cost and availability of the medication
C. Patient’s hepatic and renal function
D. The patient’s preference for a particular brand
E. Need for monitoring and follow-up
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Rational drug selection includes diagnosis based on clinical reasoning,
consideration of cost, guidelines, availability, interactions, side effects, allergies, hepatic/renal
function, need for monitoring, and special populations . Patient brand preference may be
considered for adherence but is not a primary determinant of rational selection.
, Question 7
Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes prescribing from administering a
medication?
A. Prescribing and administering are interchangeable terms in pharmacology
B. Prescribing involves selecting the correct agent, determining dosage, and setting duration of
therapy; administering is giving a dose
C. Administering requires more clinical decision-making than prescribing
D. Prescribing is limited to physicians, while administering is limited to nurses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prescribing is a complex decision-making process involving selection of the
correct pharmacological agent, determination of precise dosage, and setting the duration of
therapy based on safety standards and patient-specific needs. Administration is the act of giving
a dose . Both involve clinical judgment but at different stages of the medication use process.
Question 8
A new APRN is reviewing the concept of “therapeutic devices” within prescriptive authority.
Which of the following is an example of a therapeutic device?
A. Metformin 500 mg tablets
B. Portable oxygen concentrator
C. Lisinopril 10 mg capsules
D. Albuterol metered-dose inhaler
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Therapeutic devices include Durable Medical Equipment (DME) such as portable
oxygen, wheelchairs, hospital beds, and power scooters . The other options are pharmacological
agents (medications), not devices.
Question 9
An APRN who holds prescriptive authority is asked to prescribe medication for a patient she has
never met, based solely on a colleague‘s recommendation. What is the most appropriate
response?
A. Prescribe the medication as requested to maintain collegial relationships
B. Prescribe the medication but limit the quantity to 7 days
& Practice Q&A | Chamberlain University Advanced
Pharmacology Fundamentals | Latest 2026/2027
Update | Verified Questions & Answers | Graded A+
SECTION I: Prescriptive Authority, Scope of Practice & Legal/Ethical Prescribing
Question 1
An APRN is reviewing state practice laws regarding prescriptive authority. Which of the following
items are within the scope of APRN prescriptive authority beyond standard prescription
medications? (Select All That Apply)
A. Durable medical equipment (DME) such as hospital beds and wheelchairs
B. Physical therapy and occupational therapy services
C. Handicap placards
D. Schedule II controlled substances
E. Over-the-counter vitamins and supplements
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: APRN prescriptive authority extends beyond writing medication prescriptions to
include therapeutic devices, DME, medical services (PT, OT, home health), handicap placards,
and controlled substances as permitted by state law and DEA registration . While OTC vitamins
are available without prescription, APRNs may recommend them, but they do not require
prescriptive authority per se. All items listed except E fall within the formal scope of prescriptive
authority governed by state practice laws.
Question 2
A nurse practitioner is practicing in a state with “full practice authority.” Which statement
accurately describes the implications for prescribing?
A. The NP may prescribe only non-controlled substances independently
B. The NP may evaluate, diagnose, order tests, and prescribe medications including controlled
substances without physician oversight
C. The NP must maintain a collaborative agreement with a physician for all prescribing
D. The NP may prescribe independently but must have a physician co-sign all controlled
substance prescriptions
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Full practice authority allows NPs to evaluate patients, diagnose, order and
interpret diagnostic tests, initiate and manage treatments, and prescribe medications including
controlled substances without physician oversight or collaborative agreements . Reduced and
restricted practice states impose varying levels of physician involvement.
Question 3
An APRN is considering prescribing a medication for a close family member who is visiting from
out of town and has an acute illness. According to prudent prescribing practices, what is the
most appropriate action?
A. Prescribe the medication since the APRN has the clinical knowledge to do so
B. Prescribe the medication only if it is a non-controlled substance
C. Avoid prescribing for family members and refer the patient to another provider
D. Prescribe the medication and document it as a professional courtesy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prudent prescribing practices explicitly include avoidance of prescribing
medications for self, family, or friends . This boundary protects patient safety and reduces legal
liability by ensuring objective clinical decision-making. A provider-patient relationship should be
established with appropriate documentation before prescribing.
Question 4
Which of the following represents documentation that is required for prudent prescribing
practices? (Select All That Apply)
A. Documentation of a provider-patient relationship
B. Documentation of a thorough history and physical examination
C. Documentation of discussions regarding risks, side effects, and therapy options
D. Documentation of drug monitoring or titration plan
E. Documentation of the patient‘s insurance formulary status
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Prudent prescribing requires documentation of the provider-patient relationship,
a thorough history and physical, discussions of risks/side effects/options, and a drug
,monitoring/titration plan . Insurance formulary status is relevant to cost considerations but is
not a required component of prudent prescribing documentation.
Question 5
A patient with chronic pain asks the APRN to prescribe a Schedule II opioid. Which of the
following factors primarily determines whether the APRN may prescribe this medication
independently?
A. The patient’s insurance coverage
B. The DEA schedule of the medication
C. Applicable state practice and prescriptive-authority laws
D. The pharmacy’s policy on controlled substances
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: State practice and prescriptive-authority laws determine the extent of an NP’s
authority to prescribe controlled substances, including Schedule II opioids . Some states require
collaborative agreements or physician oversight for controlled substance prescribing even when
the NP has general prescriptive authority.
Question 6
An APRN is explaining the concept of “rational drug selection” to a student. Which of the
following considerations should be included? (Select All That Apply)
A. Diagnosis based on clinical reasoning
B. Cost and availability of the medication
C. Patient’s hepatic and renal function
D. The patient’s preference for a particular brand
E. Need for monitoring and follow-up
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Rational drug selection includes diagnosis based on clinical reasoning,
consideration of cost, guidelines, availability, interactions, side effects, allergies, hepatic/renal
function, need for monitoring, and special populations . Patient brand preference may be
considered for adherence but is not a primary determinant of rational selection.
, Question 7
Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes prescribing from administering a
medication?
A. Prescribing and administering are interchangeable terms in pharmacology
B. Prescribing involves selecting the correct agent, determining dosage, and setting duration of
therapy; administering is giving a dose
C. Administering requires more clinical decision-making than prescribing
D. Prescribing is limited to physicians, while administering is limited to nurses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prescribing is a complex decision-making process involving selection of the
correct pharmacological agent, determination of precise dosage, and setting the duration of
therapy based on safety standards and patient-specific needs. Administration is the act of giving
a dose . Both involve clinical judgment but at different stages of the medication use process.
Question 8
A new APRN is reviewing the concept of “therapeutic devices” within prescriptive authority.
Which of the following is an example of a therapeutic device?
A. Metformin 500 mg tablets
B. Portable oxygen concentrator
C. Lisinopril 10 mg capsules
D. Albuterol metered-dose inhaler
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Therapeutic devices include Durable Medical Equipment (DME) such as portable
oxygen, wheelchairs, hospital beds, and power scooters . The other options are pharmacological
agents (medications), not devices.
Question 9
An APRN who holds prescriptive authority is asked to prescribe medication for a patient she has
never met, based solely on a colleague‘s recommendation. What is the most appropriate
response?
A. Prescribe the medication as requested to maintain collegial relationships
B. Prescribe the medication but limit the quantity to 7 days
